16/B/C/S-2/4/ES July 2016 PART (B) (EMPLOY ABILITY SKILLS) (TWO YEAR TRADES) (MORNING SESSION) SEMESTER-II

EMPLOY ABILITY SKILLS

(TWO YEAR TRADES)

(MORNING SESSION)

SEMESTER-II July 2016

1.    A commercial document issued by
 a seller to the buyer is called ..............
a)    Liability
b)    Asset
c)    Invoice
d)    Equity
Answer:- c)    Invoice

2. SWOT is primarily, a—.-------                                                                                                                                                               a)      Planning tool                                                                                                                                                                      b)      Marketing tool                                                                                                                                                                            c)      Banking tool                                                                                                                                                                              d)      Insurance tool                                                                                                                                                                                                   Answer:- a)      Planning tool
3. For availing loan facility,
the entrepreneur has to contribute
some money from own resources.
This amount of money is called-----.....
a)       Minimum money
b)       Maximum money
c)       Margin money
d)       Material money
Answer:- c)       Margin money

4. SIDO is an apex organization
concerned with.....-------
a)       Welfare of women
b)       Child labour
c)       Population control
d)       Small scale industries.
Answer:- d)       Small scale industries
5. It is a document used as delivery
note while sending goods.
The receiver signs on the
duplicate copy and returns to
the sender as a token of acceptance.
This document is
Called............
a)       Challan
 b)      Invoice
c)       Bill
d)       Receipt
Answer:- a)       Challan

6. What does MSME stand for?
a)       Mini, Small and Major Enterprises
b)       Micro, Small and Major Enterprises
c)       Micro. Small and Medium Enterprises
d)       Micro, Small and Main Enterprises
Answer:- c)  Micro. Small and Medium Enterprises

7. One of the ancillary services provided
by banks is "ATM Cards". What does "A TM
stand for?
a)       Any Time Money
b)       Anywhere Time Machine
c)       Ancillary Teller Machine
d)       Automatic Teller Machine
Answer:- d)       Automatic Teller Machine

8. A firm is said to be productively efficient, if
a)    Its Cost of production is low
b)    It is selling its product at low price
c)    It is producing what customers want
d)    It is most popular in the region                                                                                                                                       Answer:- a)    Its Cost of production is low
9. Which one of the following is not
an advantage of introduction of
new technology in a firm?
a)    Reduction of waste
b)    Increases strain in industrial relation
c)    New and better products
d)    Better communication
Answer:- b) Increases strain in industrial relation

10. LIC is concerned with—
a)       Real estate
c)       Export business
b)       Money lending
d)       Insurance
Answer:- d)       Insurance
11. FDI stands for............
a)       Foreign Diverse Investment
c)       Foreign Direct Interest
b)       Foreign Dealers in India
d)       Foreign Direct Investment
Answer:- d)       Foreign Direct Investment
12. When you approach a seriously injured
person, think of the ABC. What is ABC?
a) Airway- Breathing-Circulation
b) Airflow- Breast-Circulation
c) Airspace-Breathing-Cipher
d) Airway-Breast-Circulation
Answer:- a) Airway- Breathing-Circulation

13. It is a metallic object which is present in
petrol and diesel and which can cause damage to
nervous system. What is it?
a)       Chromium
b)       Tin
c)       Lead
d)       Antimony
Answer:- c)       Lead

14. When working on electrical equipment,
the area should not be wet because
a)    One may slip
b)    It increase body resistance to flow of current
c)    It decreases body resistance to flow of current
d)    It can cause fluctuation in voltage
Answer:- c) It decreases body resistance to flow of current
15. What is wrong with the use of
spanner in figure given below?
a)    One end of spanner is broken
b)    The spanner is not of correct size
c)    The spanner is not long enough
d)    The spanner is cracked
Answer:- b)    The spanner is not of correct size

16. When working in a workshop don't indulge in horseplay.
What does "horseplay" mean?
a)    Unauthorized work
b)    Rough and noisy behavior
c)    Wastage of material
d)    Fiddling with electrical equipment
Answer:- b)    Rough and noisy behavior
17. Which one of the following is a biological hazard?
a)       Virus
b)       Fatigue
c)       Alcoholism
d)       Old age
Answer:- a)       Virus

18. The Workmen's Compensation Act provides
compensation in case of-------------
a)       Disablement
b)       Funeral expenses
c)       Maternity expenses
d)       Sickness
Answer:- a)       Disablement

19. Which of the following benefits is provided
under the EST Act?
a)       Sickness benefit
b)       Maternity benefit
c)       Employment injury benefit
 d)      All of these
Answer:- d)      All of these

20. Apprenticeship training is provided in----------
a)     Schools
b)     Industrial Training Institutes
c)     Industries
d)     All of these
Answer:- c)     Industries

21. Quality circles are-...........groups of employees who
voluntarily meet to solve work
related problems. (Fill in the blank).
a)    Formal
b)    Informal
c)    Contractual
d)    Expert
Answer:- b)    Informal

22. Leaving tools in aisles in a workshop can create
a) A tripping hazard
b) A chemical spill
c) Additional storage space
d) Easy accessibility to tools
Answer:- a) A tripping hazard

23. Quality objectives of any department must be-------
a)     Lofty
 b)    Measurable
c)     Multiple
d)    High
Answer:- b)    Measurable
24. When you hear the evacuation
alarm you must-------
a)    Stop to get you belongings
b)    Call your supervisor
c)    A wait further instructions
d)    Evacuate immediately to the
emergency assembly location
Answer:- d)Evacuate immediately to
                    the emergency assembly location



25. If you are injured at work, no matter
how insignificant it is. you must---------------
a)       Go home
b)       Report to your supervisor
c)       Go to the hospital
d)      Tell your family
Answer:- b)       Report to your supervisor

FITTER THEORY SEM-IV 2016
1.The following is machined dry.
a) Aluminium 
b) Cast iron 
c) Titanium 
d) All of these
Answer:- b) Cast iron 

2.The following device is used to
determine the mix ratio of water-
soluble coolanls:
a) Diffract meter   
b) Hydrometer
c) Refract meter     
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Refract meter     

3.The use of metal working fluids_.
a) Increase the tool life
b) Produce better surface finish
c) Prevent rise in temperature
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these

4.The main constituent(s) of
mineral oil is/are_.
a) Paraffin
b) Naphthenic
c) Aromatics
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these

5.The following is used in heat
treatment process as a quenching
medium for obtaining
a higher degree of hardness.
a) Mineral oil     
b) Fatty acid
c) Waxes   
d)Graphite suspensions
Answer:- b) Fatty acid

6.Which of the following is added
 to the cutting fluids so that soapy
film is produced between the work piece
& tool and  chip & tool face?
a) Sulphur
b) Chlorine
c) Both (a) & (b)   
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Both (a) & (b)


7.Soluble oil is used as cutting
fluid in .............
a) Sawing
b) Drilling and boring
c) Reaming
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


8.Usually no cutting oil is used in ....
a) Broaching
b) Planning and  shaping
c) Thread rolling
d) Honing
Answer:- b) Planning and  shaping


9.Choose name of the bolt.
a) Gib Headed foundation boit
b) Cotter foundation bolt
c) Through foundation bolt
d) Eye foundation bolt
Answer:- d) Eye foundation bolt


10. ............... are used to separate
the tramp oil (sump oil) from coolant.
a) Magnetic separators
b) Skimmers
c) Rotating spindles
d) All of these
Answer:- b) Skimmers


11 Which of the following parameters
influence the axial feed rate in
 centreless grinding?
a) Regulating wheel diameter
b) Angle between the axes of grinding
and regulating wheels
c) Speed of the regulating wheel
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


12. Hydraulic oil is compressible
a) Not at all
b) Very much
c) Very Little
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Very Little


13. Power = Torque x .................
a) Velocity
b) RPM
c) Force
d) Area
Answer:- b) RPM

14. .... is prime mover in hydraulic system.
a) Oil
b) Electric Motor   
c) Pipe
d) Impeller
Answer:- b) Electric Motor   


15. Power of Pump = .............. x
Volume flow rate.
a) Velocity
b) RPM
c) Force
d) Pressure
Answer:- d) Pressure


16. 1 HP = ................ W
a) 746
b) 1000
c) 100
d) 764
Answer:- a) 746

17. Which flat belt drive system has
two pulleys mounted on driven shaft
and one pulley on driving shaft?
a) Multiple belt drive
b) Cone pulley drive
c) Fast and loose pulley drive
d) None of these
Answer:- ) Fast and loose pulley drive

18. Which of the following statements
are false for belt drives?
i) Belt drive is used in applications
     having constant speed dnve
ii) Belt drives can be used at extremely
     high speeds
iii) Belt drives have low power
      transmitting capacity
iv) Belt drives need continuous lubrication
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i), (ii) & (iii)
c) (ii), (iii)&(iv)
d) (i), (ii) & (iv)
Answer:- d) (i), (ii) & (iv)


19. Determine power rating of an electric
motor if it runs at 1440 r.p.m and line shaft
transmits torque of 75 Nm. Assume
Reduction ratio = 1.6 .................
a)  10.36 kW
b)  11.3kW
c)  7.068 kW
d)  9.12kW
Answer:- c)  7.068 kW


20. In simple gear trains the direction of
rotation of driven gear is opposite to the
direction of rotation of driving gear
only if ...................
a) Even number of idler gears are present 
b) Odd number of idler gears are present
c) Any number of idler gears are present   
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Even number of idler gears are
                    present

21.Why is an idler gear used in gear trains?
a) To obtain minimum center distance
     between driving and driven snatt
b) To have required direction of rotation
c) Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Answer:- b) To have required direction
                     of rotation


22. Determine torque transmitted on
the pinion shaft if torque transmitted
on gear shaft is 20 nm consider Gear ratio = 4
a)8nm
b) 5 nm
c) 80 nm
d)16nm
Answer:- b) 5 nm


23. Which of the following statements
 is/are true for gear drives?
a) They can be used for long center distances
b) They are used to transmit power between
non-intersecting and parallel shafts
c) They cannot be used for high reduction ratios
d) All of these
Answer:- b) They are used to transmit power
      between  non-intersecting and parallel shaft

24. Which gears are used to connect two
 intersecting shaft axes?
a) Crossed helical gear
b) Worm and worm wheel
c) Bevel gears
d) All of these
Answer:- c) Bevel gears


25. What is meant by gear ratio?
a) The ratio of pinion speed and gear speed
b) The ratio of number of teeth on pinion
and number of teeth on gear
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) The ratio of pinion speed and
                    gear speed


26. What is the function of hydraulic
       motor?
1. Hydraulic motor converts hydraulic
oil under pressure into torque and angular
displacement
2. Hydraulic motor converts hydraulic
    oil under  pressure into force and linear
    displacement
3. Hydraulic motor converts hydraulic energy
    into mechanical energy

4. Hydraulic motor converts mechanical energy
into hydraulic energy
a) 1 and 4 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 2 and 4
Answer:- b) 1 and 3

27. Calculate area of a pipe if, flow rate is
20 I/min and flow velocity is 5 cm/s
a) 66.66 cm² 
b) 60 cm²   
c) 62 cm²   
d) None of these
Answer:- a) 66.66 cm²

28. What this hydraulic symbol
a) Motor unidirectional
b) Motor bidirectional
c) Pump unidirectional
d) Pump bidirectional
Answer:- a) Motor unidirectional


29. In soldering the melting point of filler
metal is ...................
a) Below 420°C     
b) Above 420°C     
c) Below 520°C     
d) Above 520°C
Answer:- b) Above 420°C

30. The composition of electrician
solder is ...........
a) Lead-37%, tin-63%
b) Lead-50%, tin-50%
c) Lead-63%, tin-37%
d) Lead-70%, tin-30%
Answer:- d) Lead-70%, tin-30%


31. The composition of soft solder is____
a) Lead-37%, tin-63%
b) Lead-50%, tin-50%
c) Lead-63%, tin-37%
d) Lead-70%, tin-30%
Answer:- a) Lead-37%, tin-63%

32. Corrosion can be prevented by_
a) Alloying
b) Tinning
c) Galvanizing
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


33. As compare to iron, aluminum has ....
a) Higher tendency to oxidize
b) Less tendency to oxidize
c) Equal tendency to oxidize
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Higher tendency to oxidize

34. Conditions for good electroplating
 is/are .......
a) High current density
b) Low temperature
c) High concentration of metal in electrolyte
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these

35. Iron is galvanized by coating with ...............
a) Zinc
b)Tin
c) Copper
d) Nickel
Answer:- a) Zinc

36. Which defect arises due to faulty
 heat treatment?
a) Over heating and burring
b) Oxidation and decarburization
c) Cracks, distortion and warping
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these

37. In general, hardening is followed by ....
a) Annealing
b) Normalizing
c) Tempering
d) Case hardening
Answer:- a) Annealing


38. This type of fastener is designed to
prevent movement between shafts and wheels.
a) Keys
b) Machine pins     
c) Rivets
d) Knuckle
Answer:- a) Keys

39. A mechanical device that stores
energy, when deflected and to return the
equivalent amount of energy when released
is known as a ..................
a) Blind rivet
b) Key way
c) Spring
d) Hammer
Answer:- c) Spring


40. Joint strength in brazing operation is-.
a) As high as in gas or arc welding
b) Not as high as in gas or arc welding
c) Higher than that of in gas or arc welding
d) Unpredictable
Answer:- b) Not as high as in gas or arc
                    welding


41. Which of the following is a soft solder?
a) Copper-zinc alloy
b) Nickel-silver alloy
c) Lead-tin alloy     
d) All of  these
Answer:- c) Lead-tin alloy

42. Transmission angle is the angle between
a) Input link and coupler
b) Input link and fixed li
c) Output link and coupler
d) Output link and fixed
Answer:- c) Output link and coupler

43. What this hydraulic symbol means
a) Directional control valve
     (4 ports 12 positions)
b) Directional control valve
    (4 ports /3 positions)
c) Directional control valve
     (5 ports /2 positions)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Directional control valve
                  (4 ports 12 positions)

44. Module of a gear is ..............
a) DAT b) T/D c) 2D/T d) 2T/D
Answer:- b) T/D

45. When screw threads are to be used
in a situation where power is being
transmitted in one direction only, then
the screw threads suitable for this will be ....
a) Square threads   
b) Knuckle threads 
c) Acme threads     
d) Buttress threads
Answer:- d) Buttress threads


46. Which of the following material has
      the maximum ductility?
a) Mild steel
b) Copper
c) Aluminium
d) Zinc
Answer:- a) Mild steel

47. The sleeve or muff coupling is
       designed as a-.
a) Dun cylinder     
b) Solid shaft
c) Thick cylinder   
d) Hollow shaft
Answer:- d) Hollow shaft


48. In a flange coupling, the flanges are
      coupled together by means of_.
a) Studs
b) Bolts and nuts   
c) Headless taper bolt
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Bolts and nuts

49. An open belt drive is used when ......
a) Driven shaft is to be started or stopped
whenever desired without interfering
with the driving shaft
b) Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate
     in the same directions
c) Shafts are arranged at right angles and
     rotate in one definite direction
d) Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate
     in the opposite directions
Answer:- b) Shafts are arranged parallel
                    and rotate in the same directions

50. When bevel gears connect two shafts
whose axes intersect at an angle greater
than a right angle and one of the bevel gears
has a pitch angle of 90°, then they are
known as
a) Internal bevel gears
b) Angular bevel gears
c) Crown bevel gears
d) Mitre gears
Answer:- c) Crown bevel gears
JULY 2017 SEMESTER-I
(MORNING SESSION) (TWO YEAR)
(COMMON FOR ALL ENGG & NON ENGG TRADES)
(EMPLOYABILITY SKILLS)

1. He would starve to death rather
than.............a loan.
a) Have asked
b) Ask
c) To ask
d) To have asked
Answer:- b) Ask

2. It was easy to guess what they
had been doing..........
a) From living
b) So as to live
c) For a living
d) To live
Answer:- c) For a living
3. Reading comprehension means
understanding a..................
a) Oral
b) Written
c) Usual
d) Audio
Answer:- b) Written

4. Once the message is encoded in
a desired format it is transferred through
a medium called
a) Channel
b) Medium
c) Media
d) Way
Answer:- a) Channel

5. It is important to consider proper ......
where you are giving your presentation.
a) Darkness
b) Lighting
c) Lightning
d) Ventilation
Answer:- b) Lighting

6. Any word that adds more meaning to
the noun is called
a) Adverb
b)Verb
c) Adjective
d) Noun
Answer:- c) Adjective
7. Our dress code is an example
of.............communication.
a) Verbal
b) Nonverbal
c) Written
d) Spoken
Answer:- b) Nonverbal

8. The application letter is .....
a) A description of your core strengths
   and suitability for the job
b) A statement of your job objective
c) . A summary of your qualifications
    and experiences
d) A foreword
Answer:- a) A description of your core
     strengths and suitability for the job

9. A light sensitive device that converts
drawing, printed text or other images into
digital form
is...........
a) Keyboard
b) Plotter
c) Scanner
d) OMR
Answer:- c) Scanner

10. In order to tell Excel that we are entering
a formula in cell, we must begin with an operator
such as .............
a) $  b) @  c) =  d) +
Answer:- b) @
11. Microsoft Word is an example of...............
a) An operating system
b) Processing device
c) Application software
d) System software
Answer:- c) Application software

12. The  ............. program compresses
large files into a smaller file.
a) WinZip
b) WinShrink
c) WinStyle
d) None of these
Answer:- a) WinZip

13.Ctrl + C is used to -
a) Copy the selected text
b) Cut the selected text
c) Paste the selected text
d) Print the selected text
Answer:- a) Copy the selected text

14. Which of the following is not the
correct method of editing the cell content?
a) Press the Alt key
b) Press the F2 key
c) Click the formula bar
d) Double click the cell
Answer:- a) Press the Alt key
15. LAN stands for -
a) Local Area Net
c) Local Area Network
b) Long Area Network
d) Long Area Net
Answer:- b) Long Area Network
16. Which of the following should be used
when you want to add a slide to an existing
presentation?
a) File, add a new slide
b) Insert, New slide
c) File open
d) File, new
Answer:- b) Insert, New slide
17. Communication is a non-stop................
a) Paper
b) Process
c) Programme
d) Plan
Answer:- b) Process

18. Environmental barriers are same
as ................. noise.
a) Physiological
b) Psychological
c) Physical
d) Cultural
Answer:- c) Physical

19. Personification of strength and violence
are considered as ___ gender.
a) Masculine
b) Feminine
c) Common
d) Neuter
Answer:- a) Masculine

20.  The ............  are used to present
using overhead projectors.                                                                      a) Acetate film sheet                                                                                                                       b) Paper sheet                                                                                                               c) Polythene sheet                                                                                                                               d) Butter paper                                                                                                                       Answer:- a) Masculine

21. In .......... listening the main intension
 is to seek certain information which will be
appreciated,
a) Empathetic
b) Evaluative
c) Appreciative
d) Dialogic
Answer:- c) Appreciative

22. ............. context refers to the similarity
of backgrounds between the sender and the
receiver.
a) Physical
b) Social
c) Cultural
d) Chronological
Answer:- c) Cultural

23. Understanding ................... different
parts of speech forms the base of leaning grammar.
a) Five
b) Eight
c) Seven
d) Six
Answer:- b) Eight

24. When you should plan to arrive for your
 interview .............
a) 2 hours early
b) 1 hours early
c) 30 minutes early
d) Right on time
Answer:- c) 30 minutes early

25. The experience of feeling competent to
cope with the basic challenges in life and of being
worthy of happiness is ......
a) Arrogance
b) Self-esteem
c) Wishful thinking
d) Self efficacy
Answer:- b) Self-esteem

18/A/C/S-2/2/E
 (EMPLOYABILITY SKILLS)
SEMESTER - II

1. The percentage of small industry sector is
 .... of whole industrial production
the country:
(a)   25%
(b)  50%
(c)  70%
(d)  80%
Answer:- (d)  80%

2. The reasons for failure of an industria
list are...............
(a)   Tough competition
(b)   More expenditure
(c)   High rate of product
(d)   All of these
Answer:- (d)   All of these

3. Full form of D.I.C. is .............
(a)   Direct Investment Centre
(b)   Delhi Industrial Corporation                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    (c)   District Industry Centre
(d)   Dual Investment Corporation
Answer:- (c)   District Industry Centre

4. How many banks were nationalized
on 15Ih April. 1980?
(a)   4   
(b)  6
(c)  8
(d)  10
Answer:- (b)  6

5. When was Indian Financial Corporation
of India (IFCI) established?
(a)   1948
(b)   1946
(c)   1951
(d)   1956
Answer:- (a)   1948

6. Which of the following was established
as an ancillary organization of Indian Reserve
Bank?
(a)  IDBI
(b)  ICICI
(c)  IFCI
(d)  All of these
Answer:- (a)  IDBI

7.  First cotton mill was set up in
(a)  Kolkata
(b)  Rajasthan
(c)  Gujarat
(d)   Andhra Pradesh
Answer:- (a)  Kolkata

8. Members in Partnerships are ..........
(a)   One
(b)   Two or more than two   
(c)   One Hundred   
(d)   Five Hundred
Answer:- (b)   Two or more than two   

9.  Important thing in selection of
an industry is ..............
(a)   Demand of product
(b)   Capital
(c)   Nearest Transport Facility
(d)   All of these
Answer:- (d)   All of these

10. The most developed country is:
(a)   Germany     
(b)   Japan
 (c)  Switzerland
(d)   Russia
Answer:- (c)  Switzerland

11. Which are the sudden risks?
(a)   Fire     
(b)   Accident during working on
       Machine 
(c)   Injury 
(d)   All of these
Answer:- (d)   All of these

12. Worksmen Compensation
Act was implemented in ..............
(a)   July 1923
(b)   December 1923
(c)   July 1924
(d)   December 1924
Answer:- (c)   July 1924

13. Arrangement of ....... must be
available in industry in which women
workers employed.
(a)   Creche
 (b)  Maternity homes
(c)   Canteen    .
(d)   Rest rooms
Answer:- (a)   Creche

14. Production work ....... due to strike
or lockout.
(a)   Cost increases   
(b)   Panic increases 
(c)   fatigue increases 
(d)   Stops
Answer:- (d)   Stops

15. Which of the following one is
part of Total Quality Cost
(a)   Prevention Cost
(b)   Evaluation Cost
(c)   Failure Cost
(d)   All of these
Answer:- (d)   All of these

16. Best price or Zero Cost is.........
(a)   Quality leadership
(b)   Poor quality product
(c)   Discounted Cost
(d)   None of these
Answer:- (c)   Discounted Cost

17. Quality means ..........
(a)   Zero error
 (b)  As per requirement
(c)   Meeting the standards established
for the product
(d)   Both (b) & (c)
Answer:- (d)   Both (b) & (c)

18. Recycling  ..... the cost of product.
(a)  Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) No effect
(d) none of the above
Answer:- (a)  Decreases

19. 80% problems are found in 20% work,
this concept was given by ..........
(a)  Deming
(b)  Crosbey
(c)  Juran
(d)  Pareto
Answer:- (d)  Pareto

20. Continuous reform process
uses  ............. cycle
(a)   PDCA
(b)   SGA
(c)   QC
(d)   None
Answer:- (a)   PDCA

21. The aim of Kaizen is to
 remove the  .................
(a)   Useless items     
(b)   Productivity     
(c)   Personification   
(d)   Negligence
Answer:- (a)   Useless items     

22. How many countries are
 the members of ISO?
(a)  58
(b)  91
(C)  101 
(d)  56
Answer:- (b)  91

23. Hand protection is done in
industries through .............
(a)   Helmet
(b)   Goggles
(c)   Gloves 
(d)   Mask
Answer:- (c)   Gloves 

24. Suggestions under "Kaizen"
 may be implemented ..................
(a)   Within a week
(b)   With the approval of CEO
(c)   Immediately
(d)  At the  time of expansion
Answer:- (d)  At the  time of expansion

25. The long term benefits by using
5 S system is/are ...........
(a)   Efficiency
(b)   Safety
(c)   Increase in profit
 (d)  all of these
Answer:- (d)  all of these

Feb 2016 PAPER-II
PART- B (EMPLOYABILITY SKILLS)
(For 2 Yr. Trades)
SEMESTER-II

1. A person who is associated with the
starting of business is called................
A  merchant
B  entrepreneur
C  businessman
D  sales executive
Answer:- B  entrepreneur

2. MSME stands for..............
A   Micro, Scale and Medium
      Enterprises
B   Macro, Small and Medium
     Enterprises
C   Micro, Small and Medium
     Enterprises
D   Minor, Small and Medium
      Enterprises
Answer:- D   Minor, Small and Medium
                     Enterprises

3. Money invested in purchasing of raw
materials, payment of wages and salaries,
rental, electricity etc comes under...........
A  working capital
B  fixed capital
C  long term capital
D  capital income
Answer:- C  long term capital

4. Which one is a correct channel through
which marketers can reach customers?
A   Manufacture => Retailer => Wholesaler
      => Customer
B   Manufacturer  =>Customer  =>Retailer
C   Manufacturer   => Retailer =>Customer
D   Manufacturer => Retailer => Customer
      =>Wholesaler
Answer:- D   Manufacturer => Retailer =>
                      Customer =>Wholesaler

5. In SWOT analysis which pair is helpful?
A   Strengths, Weakness
B   Strengths, Opportunities
C   Threats, Weakness
D   Threats, Opportunities
Answer:- C   Threats, Weakness

6.  Which stage is a period of rapid revenue
growth?
A  Growth stage
B   Maturity stage
C   Decline stage
D   Introduction stage
Answer:- A  Growth stage

7. Which one is used to measure the
economic performance of a whole country
or region?
A  KYC
B  GDP
C  TFP
D  ATM
Answer:- C  TFP

8. Which one of the following
objective of incentive?
A   Improved quality
B   High cost of production
C   High output
D   Reduced waste
Answer:- B   High cost of production

9.  The expansion of GDP is.......
A  Gross Domestic Product
B   Godown Demand Product
C   Grand Demand Product
D   Giant Domestic Product
Answer:- D   Giant Domestic Product

10. Which one of the following is NOT a
category of pure risk?
A  Property risk
B   Technology risk
C   Liability risk
D   Personnel risk
Answer:- C   Liability risk

11. Which one of these documents is NOT
acceptable for fulfilment of KYC norms?
A  Voter ID card
B   Ration card
C   Residential certificate
D   Income certificate
Answer:- D   Income certificate


12. Vibration and radiation comes
under ................
A  chemical hazards
B   physical hazards
C  electrical hazards
D   psychological hazards
Answer:- A  chemical hazards

13. Head protection is done through ........
A   helmet
B   goggles
C   gloves
D   mask
Answer:- A   helmet

14. Which one of the following is NOT an
ergonomic hazard?
A  Awkward position
B   Poor housekeeping
C   Emotional disturbances
D   Wrong layout of machinery
Answer:- A  Awkward position

15. The reprocessing of discarded
materials into
new useful products is called....
A   reuse of waste material
B   recycling of material
C   management of solid waste
D   reduction in use of raw material
Answer:- A   reuse of waste material

16. Which one is a man induced hazards?
A  Landslide
B  Cyclone
C  Volcano
D  Earth quake
Answer:- B  Cyclone


17. Ozone layer is made up of.......
A  one oxygen atom
B  two oxygen atoms
C   three oxygen atoms
D   four oxygen atoms
Answer:- A  one oxygen atom

18. What is the minimum percentage
of employee's contribution from the
basic salary, as per EPF Act, 1962?
A   8.5 %
B   9.0 %
C   12.0 %
D  12.5%
Answer:- A   8.5 %



19. Under Factories Act. the workers
weekly hours should not exceed more
than......
A 60 hours
B 50 hours
C 48 hours
D 40 hours .
Answer:- C 48 hours


20. As per factories act, 1948 canteen
should provided in the factory if, workers
are more than..............
A  100
B  250
C  500
D 1000
Answer:- B  250


21. The expansion of QMS is..........
A  Quality Management Standard
B   Quality Measurement Standard
C   Quality Measurement System
D  Quality Management System
Answer:- B   Quality Measurement
                      Standard

22. In PDCA cycle, 'P' stands for ........
A  Process
B  Plan
C  Problem
D Procedure
Answer:- A  Process

23. What is the last step in ISO 9001
registration?
A  Corrective and preventive action
B   Internal audit
C   Management review meeting
D   Certification and audit
Answer:- B   Internal audit

24. Fishbone chart is also called as .............
A  cause and effect diagram
B   scatter diagram
C  control chart
D histogram
Answer:- C  control chart

25. What is the name used for word "waste"?
A  MUDA
B  MURA
C  MURI
D  MUSA
Answer:- B  MURA

FEB 2017
FITTER THEORY
SEMESTER - III
PART-1

1. Which one is not part of
centre lathe?
a)  Saddle
b)  Feed rod
c)  Arber
d)  Lead screw
Answer:- c)  Arber


2. Lower Critical Temperature
of High carbon Sieel while
hardening-
a)  560 °C
b)  723 °C
c)  850 °c
d)  960 °C
Answer:- b)  723 °C


3. The sliding surface of lathe
bed are -
a. Flame hardened
c. Normalized
b. Case hardened
d. Tempered
Answer:- a. Flame hardened


4. Advantages of four Jaw
Chuck are -
a. Irregular work pieces can be
     held easily
b. It has more gripping power
c. Large diameter can be held
by reversing jaw
d.  All of these
Answer:- a. Irregular work pieces can be
     held easily


5. The internal part of the shaft
of bearing is called
a. Journal
b. Cage
c. Outer Race
d. Inner race
Answer:- a. Journal


6. Bearing suitable for heavy
   radial load-
a. Thrust bearing
b. Self-Aligning ball Bearing
c. Ball Bearing
d. Roller Bearing
Answer:- b. Self-Aligning ball Bearing


7. Bearing assembled in two
parts in special plumber block-
a. Adjustable Slide Bearing
b. Solid Bearing
c.   Split Bearing
d. Self-Aligning
Ball Bearing
Answer:- c.   Split Bearing


8. Bearings are used for- -
a. To move shaft freely
b. To support shaft in a fixed
    position
c.  To guide shaft
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


9. The material for Indenter of
 mechanical surface measuring
machine-
a. Cast Steel
b. Diamond
c. Carbide
d. Tool Steel
Answer:- b. Diamond


10. Which one of the following
tool angle is provided to avoid
 rubbing of the body of the tool
with the work piece?
a. Rake angle
b. Helix angle
c. Clearance angle
d. None of these
Answer:- c. Clearance angle

11. Pattern made by the movement
of Cutting tool on the Work Surface
 is called-
a. Roughness
b. Smoothness
c. Waviness
d. Surface Texture
Answer:- d. Surface Texture

12. Abrasive used for lapping
of Gauges- Alurninium Oxide
a. Boron carbide
b. Silicon carbide
c. Aluminium Oxide
d. Diamond
Answer:- a. Boron carbide


13. The movement of Honing
machine while honing is ...
a. Vertical
b. Reciprocating
c. Vertical and Reciprocating
d. Horizontal
Answer:- c. Vertical and Reciprocating


14. In which metallic coating,
chromium powder is used-
a. Cladding
b. Sherardising
c. Calorising
d. Chromising
Answer:- d. Chromising


15. Hard abrasive for lapping is-
a. Diamond
b. Boron carbide
c. Silicon Carbide
d. Aluminium Oxide
Answer:- a. Diamond


16. Which one of the following governs
the selection of feed when
turning on work piece?
a. Tool geometry
b. Surface finish required
c. Type of coolant required
d. All of these
Answer:- a. Tool geometry


17. Centred drilling should be done at -
a. Higher rpm with a slower feed
b. Higher rprn with a higher feed
c. Slower rpm with a higher feed
d. Slower rpm with a slower feed
Answer:- a. Higher rpm with a slower feed


18. For setting of tool for threading
 it is aligned with the work by -
a. Try square
b. Centre gauge
c. Thread plug gauge
d. Template
Answer:- d. Template

19. Which one of Ihe reason for torn
threads while thread cutting on lathe?
a. Blum tool
 b. Heavy depth cut
c. Insufficient side clearance
d  Any one of These
Answer:- d  Any one of These


20. Nut dimension is represented by-
a. Mead of Bolt
b. Pitch Diameter of Bolt
c. Nominal Diameter of Bolt
d. Core Diameter of Bolt
Answer:- c. Nominal Diameter of Bolt


21. Speed while knurling should be -
a. Low
b. High
c. Intermittent
d. None of these
Answer:- a. Low


22. Workshop gauges keep at the temperature of-
a. 10 °C
b. 20 °C
c. 15 °C
d. 25 °C
Answer:- b. 20 °C


23. Gauge has GO and NO GO at its one end-
a. Fixed type plug gauge
b. Adjustable plug gauge
c. Progressive plug gauge
d. Double ended plug gauge
Answer:- c. Progressive plug gauge


24. Main purpose of Screw pitch gauge-
a. To check limits of screw thread
b. To check distance between crest to crest of screw thread
c  To check minor diameter of screw thread
d. To check major diameter of screw thread
Answer:- b. To check distance between crest to crest of screw thread


25. Taper ring gauge is used for-
a. To check inner taper
b. To check outer taper
c. To check internal thread
d. To check outer thread
Answer:- b. To check outer taper

FEB 2017
FITTER THEORY
SEMESTER - III
PART-2

26 Clearance between the mating parts is measured by-
a. Feeler Gauge
c. Dial Gauge
b.Caliper gauge
d. No Go Gauge
Answer:- a. Feeler Gauge


27 According to Indian Standard, set of slip gauges has-
a. 71 pieces
b. 81 pieces
c. 112 pieces
d. 120 pieces
Answer:- c. 112 pieces


28. Shape of warding files are-
a. Square c
b. Rectangular
c. Half Round
d. Round
Answer:- b. Rectangular


29.  Taper made on the nose of headstock spindle of lathe-
a. Morse taper
b. Jarno Taper
C. Metric Taper
d. Pin Taper
Answer:- a. Morse taper


30. A sine bar is available in standard sizes which one of these is not a standard size?
a. 100 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 250 mm
d. 300 mm
Answer:- a. 100 mm

31. While normalizing the steel should be cooled?
a. In still air to room temperature
b. In oil
c. By forced air
d.  ln water
Answer:- a. In still air to room temperature


32. Cutting tool, is affected by ,
a. Job metal
b. Tool metal
c . Depth of cut
d.  All of these
Answer:- d.  All of these


33. According to BIS. front clearance angle is put in the range of-
a. 4° to 8°
b. 2° to 5°
c. 6°  to 10°
d. More than 10°
Answer:- c. 6°  to 10°

34. Tip of tip tool is made up of-
a. Cobalt Steel 
b. Tungsten
c. Both (a) A (b)
d. None of these
Answer:- c. Both (a) A (b)


35. Lead screw is made up of-
a. High Speed Steel
b. Carbon Steel
c. Mild Steel
d. None of these
Answer:- b. Carbon Steel


36. Point angle of Morse Standard Taper is-
a. 30°
b. 45°
c 15°
d. 60°
Answer:- d. 60°



37. If the side rack is less on tool top, the effects are-
a. Smooth Cutting
b. Improper Cutting
c. No effect on cutting
d. None of these
Answer:- b. Improper Cutting


38. File has circular teeth on both edges-
a. Warding Files
b. Pillar Files
c. Mill Files
d. Crossing Files
Answer:- c. Mill Files


39. Shape of barrette file is ......
a.   Rectangular
b.  Square
c. Circular
d. Triangular
Answer:- d. Triangular


40. According lo BIS the width of Flat Scrapper-
a. 10 to 20 mm
b. 20 to 30 mm
c.  12 to 15 mm
d.  12 to 20 mm
Answer:- b. 20 to 30 mm


41. According to Size. 80 number drill is-
a. Smaller one
b. Bigger one
c. Middle one
d. None of these
Answer:- a. Smaller one


42. According to BIS, slip gauges are divided in..............grades
a.  1
b.  2
c.  3
d.  4
Answer:- d.  4


43. Angle of B S F Thread is-
a. 55
b. 60
c. 45°
d. 30°
Answer:- a. 55



44. Templates are made up of-
a. Carbon Steel
b. Too! Steel
c.  Mild Steel
d. High speed Steel
Answer:- c.  Mild Steel


45. Depth of Indian Standard Thread is indicated by-
a. 0.6403P
b. 0.6304P
c.  0.6134P
d. 0.6143P
Answer:- c.  0.6134P


46. In M 10 x 1.5.10 represents-
a. Metric Thread
b. Pitch of Thread
c.  Depth of Thread
d   Diameter of Thread
Answer:- d   Diameter of Thread


47. In above question. 1.5 represents-
a. Metric Thread
b. Pitch of Thread
c. Depth of Thread
d.  Diameter of Thread
Answer:- b. Pitch of Thread


48. Capacity of lathe is expressed by- ,
a. Horse power & chuck diameter
b. Swing and distance between centres
c. Bed length & spindle speed
d. Tool post size & lathe travels
Answer:- b. Swing and distance between centres


49 For smaller precision components, suitable thread is-
a. BSW
b. BA
c. Acme
d. Square
Answer:- b. BA


50. Angle of Indian Standard Thread is-
a.  55°
b.  60°
c.  45°
d.  30°
Answer:- b.  60°

FEB 2017
MACHINIST GRINDER
THEORY
SEMESTER-III

1. The silicon carbide abrasive
 is chiefly used for grinding .....
a. Cemented carbide
b. Ceramic
c.  Cast iron
d.  All of these
Answer:- d.  All of these


2. The grinding operation is a ....
a. Shaping operation
b. Forming operation
c. Surface finishing operation
d. Dressing operation
Answer:- c. Surface finishing operation


3. Glazing in grinding wheels
....... cutting capacity.
a. Has no effect on
b. Increase
c. grease
d- None of these
Answer:- c. grease


4. For fast removal of materials
during grinding, a .......... grinding
wheel is used.
a. Coarse grained
b. Fine grained
c.  Medium grained
d. None of these
Answer:- a. Coarse grained


5. In centreless grinding, work
    place centre will be ........
a. Above the line joining the two
     wheel centres
b. Below the line joining the two
     wheel centres
c. On the line joining the two
    wheel centres
d. At the intersection of the line
    joining the wheel centres
Answer:- a. Above the line joining the two
     wheel centres

6. A grinding wheel becomes glazed
(i.e. cutting edge takes a glass-like
appearance) due to ......
a   Wear of bond
b. Breaking of abrasive grains
c. Wear of abrasive grains.
d. Cracks on grinding wheel
Answer:- c. Wear of abrasive grains.


7. A ....... grinding wheel is used to
    grind soft materials.
a. Course grained
b. Medium grained 
c. Fine grained
d. None of these
Answer:- a. Course grained


8. The abrasive recommended for
grinding materials of low tensile
strength is ..............
a. Silicon carbide
b. Aluminium oxide
c.  Sandstone
d. Diamond
Answer:- a. Silicon carbide


9. The process of changing the
shape of grinding wheel as it
becomes worn due to breaking
away of the abrasive and bond.,
is called .........
a. Truing
b. Dressing
c. Facing
d. Clearing
Answer:- a. Truing


10. The actual feed in centerless
grinders is given by (where d = Dia
of regulating wheel, n = Revolutions
per minute. and a = Angle of inclination
of wheel) .............
π∏

11. The method of centre less grinding
       used to produce taper is ...........
b   In feed grinding   

b.  Through feed grinding
c   End feed grinding
d    None of these
Answer:- c   End feed grinding


12. Thread grinding requires work
        speed from ......
a. 1 to 3 m/mm
b. 5 to 10 m/min
c. 10 to 14 m/min
d. 14 to 20 m/min
Answer:- a. 1 to 3 m/mm


13. The grinding wheel speed
(surface speed in m/min) usually
varies from-
a. 500 to 1000
b. 1000 to 1500
c. 1500 to 2000
d. 2000 to 2500
Answer:- c. 1500 to 2000

14. The in-feed grinding is used to-
a. Produce tapers
b. Grind shoulders and formed surfaces
c. Grind long, slender shafts or bars
d. All of these
Answer:- b. Grind shoulders and formed surfaces


15. Fixtures are used ......
a. For holding and guiding the tool
    in drilling, reaming or lapping operations
b. For holding the work in milling,
      grinding. planing or turning operations
c. I o check the accuracy of work piece
d. None of the above
Answer:- b. For holding the work in milling,
      grinding. planing or turning operations


16. The work or surface speed for
    cylindrical grinding varies from ......

a. 5 to 30 m/min
b. 10 to 20 m/min
c. 20 to 30 m/min
d. 40 to 60 m/min
Answer:- b. 10 to 20 m/min


17. The performance of grinding wheel is
evaluated in terms of grinding ratio

(G) which is given by the ratio of .........

a. The volume of material required to the
     volume of wheel wear
b. The volume of wheel wear to the volume
     of material required
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
Answer:- a. The volume of material required to the
     volume of wheel wear

18. In order to grind soft material-
a. coarse grained grinding wheel is used
b. Fine grained grinding wheel is used
c Medium grained grinding wheel is used
d. None of above
Answer:- a. coarse grained grinding wheel is used


19. When the finishing is more
 important than the dimension then ............
a. Honing operation is carried out for finishing
b. Lapping operation is carried out for finishing
c. Grinding operation is carried out for finishing
d. All of the above
Answer:- b. Lapping operation is carried out for finishing


20. A device, in which a component is
held and located for a specific operation
and bushes are integrated that guide the
tool, is called as-
a. Jig         
b. Fixture
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
Answer:- a. Jig         


21. The device which place the work piece
 in the same position, in jig and fixture,
cycle after cycle is called as-
a. Placing device
b. Fixing device
c.  Locating device
d. Positioning device
Answer:- c.  Locating device


22. V-blocks (Vee locators) are used
for clamping as well as locating when
faces are inclined upto .........
a, 30°
b. 12°
c. 9°
d. 3°
Answer:- b. 12°


23. What kind of material can
you grind with aluminum oxide
grinding wheels?
a. Only aluminum.
b. Any type of metal.
c. Any metal with a yellow, gold
    or amber hue.
d. Ferrous or iron-based materials,
    like iron or steel.
Answer:- d. Ferrous or iron-based materials,
    like iron or steel.



24. How much of a gap should there
      be between the work rest and the
      face of the grinding wheel?
a. 1/8" or less
b. Not less than 1/8"
c. 1/4"
d. P
Answer:- a. 1/8" or less


25. The wheel hole diameter and the
grinder arbor size are not the same.
What can you do to make the wheel
workable?
a. The wheel is not compatible with
     the grinder. Do not install it.
b. Go ahead and install it, even if you
  have to force the wheel onto the spindle.
c. Screw on the wheel nut especially tight
d. Both(b)&(c)
Answer:- a. The wheel is not compatible with
     the grinder. Do not install it.


26. The branch of science dealing with
wear, tear and lubrications is called-
a. Ergonomics
b. Tribology
c.  Mechatronics
d. None of these
Answer:- d. None of these

27. What is the cause of a grinding
      wheel becoming glazed in a
       grinding machine?
a. Grinding wheel's grade is too soft
b. Grinding wheel's grade is too large
c. Feed and traverse are less
d. Grinding wheel's speed is too high
     and work speed is low
Answer:- d. Grinding wheel's speed is too high
     and work speed is low


28. You have to select a grinding wheel
      with suitable abrasive to grind glass.
      What is the type of abrasive you
      will select?
a. Diamond
b- Emery
c. Quartz
d. Silicon carbide
Answer:- a. Diamond


29. Which one of the following features,
       refers to vitrified bond wheels?
a. Used for longer period due to
     dense structure
b. Used for longer period due to an
     elastic structure
c. Not sensitive to shocks and pressure
d. Suitable for wet and dry grinding
Answer:- b. Used for longer period due to an
     elastic structure


30. For cylindrical grinding a small
      diameter work with fairly large
      wheel, which among the following
       grades of wheel should be used?
a. Soft
b. Medium
c Hard
d   Very soft
Answer:- c.  Hard


31. As per Indian Standards the 'K' grade
      of grinding wheel comes under the
      group .......
a.  Soft
b. Medium
c. Hard
d   Very hard
Answer:- b. Medium



32. What will happen if the job is loosely
       fitted between centres in cylindrical
    grinding?
a. The job will be out of round
b. The job will be oversized
c.  The job will be thrown out
d. The job will not rotate
Answer:- a. The job will be out of round


33. Which one of the following cutting
fluids is used during grinding mild steel?
a. Mineral oil
b. Non-synthetic cutting oil
c. Soluble oil
d.  Paraffin
Answer:- c. Soluble oil


34. Grinding fluids are used to-
a. Reduce the friction between the
     wheel face and the job
b. Wash away chips
c. Prevent loading of wheel
d. All of the above
Answer:- d. All of the above


35. The symbol conventionally used
      for resinoid bond
a. V
b. R
c. B
d. E
Answer:- c. B


36. per Indian standards the M grade
    of grinding wheel come under the
    group ........
a. Soft
b. Medium
c. Hard
d.  Very hard
Answer:- b. Medium


37. Which one of the following instruments
 is used to check the concentricity
of the outside diameter?
a. Vernier caliper
b. Outside micrometer
c. Dial test indicator
d. Dial caliper
Answer:- c. Dial test indicator


38. To convert the linear motion of the
plunger of a dial test indicator to the
 rotary motion of the pointer, which
one of the following mechanisms is used
mechanism
a. Quick return mechanism
b. Rack and pinion mechanism
c Screw thread mechanism
d. Hydraulic mechanism
Answer:- b. Rack and pinion mechanism

39. The principle of universal bevel
protractor is similar that of ......

a. Verniar bevel protractor
b. Depth micrometer
c. Dial test indicator
d. Fixed gauge
Answer:- a. Verniar bevel protractor


40. A flange micrometer is used to
measure .........
a. Outside diameter of a gear
b. Chordl thickness of gear
c. Addendum of the gear
d. None of these
Answer:- b. Chordl thickness of gear


41. While laying out. the vernier
height gauge must be used on the ......
a. Surface plate
b. Vee block
c. Machine bed
d. Any flat surface
Answer:- a. Surface plate


42. On which part of the vernier
height gauge, are the main scale
divisions graduated?
a. Vernier plate
b. Beam
c. Fine adjusting
d. Base
Answer:- b. Beam


43. Rotation to the work piece in
plain cylindrical centre type
grinder is given by-
a. Live centre
b. Steady centre
c. Driving plate
d. None of these
Answer:- c. Driving plate


44. To reverse the direction of sliding
table in a cylindrical centre type
grinder, ....... are.provided in the machine.
a. Spindle
b. Trip dogs
c. Bonds in the wheel
d. None of these
Answer:- b. Trip dogs


45. In centre less grinding, the work
 piece is advanced by-
a. Force exerted by the regulating wheel
b. Manually
c. Automotive drive
d. None of these
Answer:- a. Force exerted by the regulating wheel

46. How will you ensure the
correctness of internal radius?
a. By radius gauge
b. By seating a round ball bearing
c.  By grinding an internal radius
     tool equal to the radius of job to
     do the operation
d. By template
Answer:- c.  By grinding an internal radius
     tool equal to the radius of job to
     do the operation

47. A rough turning tool is ground by
hand on a pedestal grinder .
A after grinding
it is observed that the grounded
of the tool are concaved.
Which of the following
statements is the cause for
this defect?

a.  Tool rest not set to the required angle
b.  Tool held in one position only
      against the wheel
c. Surface speed of the grinding wheel is
    not as specified
d. The grinding is carried out on a
     peripheral grinding wheel

Answer:- d. The grinding is carried out on a
     peripheral grinding wheel

FEB 2018
ELECTRICIAN THEORY
SEMESTER-4
PART-1
1. If a slot consists of one coil
side then the winding is called-
a) Double layer winding
b) Full pitch winding
c) Single layer winding
d) Short pitch winding
Answer:- b) Full pitch winding


2. A capacitor start, capacitor run
single phase induction motor is
basically a
a) AC series motor
b) DC series motor
c) 2 phase induction motor
d) 3 phase induction motor
Answer:- c) 2 phase induction
                     motor


3. The starting torque of a capacitor
start motor is -
a) Zero
b)Low
c) Same as rated torque
d) More than rated torque
Answer:- b)Low


4. The starling capacitor of a single phase motor is - .
a) Electrolytic capacitor
b) Ceramic capacitor
c) Paper capacitor
d) None of the above.
Answer:- a) Electrolytic capacitor
5. The motor used in household
refrigerators is -
a) DG series motor
b) DC shunt motor
c) Universal motor
d) Single phase induction
     motor.
Answer:- d) Single phase
                     induction motor

6. A capacitor start single phase
induction motor will usually
have a power factor of
a) Unity
b) 0.8 leading
c)0.6 leading
d) 0.6 lagging
Answer:- d) 0.6 lagging


7. The short coming of repulsion
motor is -
a) Variation of speed with load
b) Low power factor
c) Tendency to spark at brushes
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


8. A ceiling fan of 1400 mm sweep
will have motor rating of
a) 10 to 15 waits
b) 50 to 70 watts
c) 120 to 180 watts
b) 250 to 500 watts.
Answer:- c) 120 to 180 watts


9. Which of the following
applications would need the
smallest size of motor?
a) Domestic motor
b) Electric clock
c) Table fan
d) Sewing machine
Answer:- b) Electric clock


10. Which of the following is
not a bio-mass source?
a) Gobar gas
b) Coal
c) Wood
d) Nuclear energy
Answer:- d) Nuclear energy

11. The source of energy of
the sun is__
a) Nuclear fission
b) Chemical reaction
c). Nuclear fusion
d) Photoelectric effect
Answer:-c). Nuclear fusion

12. Which motor would you
select for vacuum cleaners?
a) Universal motor .
b) Repulsion motor
c) Hysteresis motor
d) Reluctance motor.
Answer:- a) Universal motor

13. The advantage of*salient
poles in an alternator is -
a) Reduce noise
b) Reduced windage loss
c) Adoptability to low and
    medium speed operation
d) Reduce bearing loads
    and noise.
Answer:- c) Adoptability to low
and medium speed operation


14. Major share of power
generated in India is through
which means-
a) Hydroelectric power plants
b) Nuclear power plants
c) Thermal power plants
d) Gas turbine power plants
Answer:- ) Thermal power plants

15. A three phase alternator has
a phase sequence of RYB for is
three output voltages for
clockwise rotation. Now if the
alternator is rotated anticlockwise,
the phase sequence will be
a) RYB
b) RBY
c) BYR
d) None of these
Answer:- b) RBY

16. In an alternator, voltage
drops occurs in -
a) Armature resistance only
b) Armature resistance and
      leakage reactance
c) Armature resistance, leakage
 reactance and armature reaction
d) Armature resistance, leakage
reactance, armature reaction and earth
Answer:- c) Armature resistance,
 leakage reactance and armature
 reaction


17. The power Factor of an alternator
depends on -
a) Load
 b) Speed of rotor
c) Core losses
d) Armature losses
Answer:- a) Load


18.  The frequency of voltage
generated by. an alternator having
8 poles and rotating at 250 rpm is
a) 60 Hz
b)50Hz
c)25Hz
d) 16 2/3 Hz
Answer:- d) 16 2/3 Hz


19. A winding is having number of
slots is greater than number of polos,
 then this winding is
called-
a) Concentrated winding
b) Distributed winding
c) Full pitch winding
d) Integrated slot winding
Answer:- b) Distributed winding


20. Synchronous motor can
operate at -
a) Lagging power factor only
b) Leading power factor only
c) Unity power factor only
d) Lagging, leading and unity
   power factor only
Answer:- d) Lagging, leading
and unity power factor only


21. The damping winding in a
synchronous motor is generally used
a) To provide starting torque only
b) To reduce noise level
c) To reduce eddy currents
d) To prevent hunting and provide
the starting torque
Answer:- d) To prevent hunting and
provide the starting torque


22. The back emf set up in ihe stator
of a synchronous motor will depend on
a) Rotor speed only
b) Rotor excitation only
c) Rotor excitation and rotor speed     
d) Coupling angle, rotor speed and
Answer:- b) Rotor excitation only


23. In a synchronous motor, damper
winding is provided to -
a) Stabilize rotor motion
b) Suppress rotor oscillations
c) Develop necessary starting torque   
d) Both (a) & (c)
Answer:- d) Both (a) & (c)


24. Advantage of 'hydro-electric power
station is -
a) Low operating cost
b) Free from pollution problems
c) No fuel transportation problems     
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


25. An Auto-transformer (which has
only one winding) may be used as a
a) Step-Up Transformer
b) Step-Down Transformer
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
Answer:- c) Both (a) & (b)

FEB 2018
ELECTRICIAN THEORY
SEMESTER-4
PART-2
26. In an Auto Transformer, The
Primary and Secondary arc ............
Coupled,
a) Only Magnetically
b) Only Electrically
c) Magnetically as well as Electrical
d)None of these
Answer:- c) Magnetically as well as
                   Electrical

27. The nominal ratio for a current
 transformer is given by -
a) (Rated primary winding current)/
(Rated secondary winding current)
b) (Number of turns in the primary
winding) / (Number of turns in the
secondary winding)
c) (Number of turns in the secondary
winding)/ (Number of turns in the
primary winding)
d) (Rated secondary winding current) /
(Rated primary winding current)
Answer:- a) (Rated primary winding
current)/ (Rated secondary winding
current)


28. The transformer ratio of the
transformer depends upon the
a) Exciting current
b) Secondary current
c) Power factor of secondary circuit
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


29. Radiant efficiency of the
 luminous source depends on -
a) Shape of the source
b) Temperature of the source
c) Wavelength of light rays
d) All of these
Answer:- b) Temperature of
                     the source


30. Light waves Iravci with a
velocity of-
a)3x l0¹ºcm/s
b) 3 x 10¹²cm/s
c)3x〖10〗^15cm/s
d)3x 〖10〗^18cm/s.
Answer:- a)3x l0¹ºcm/s


31. Carbon arc lamps commonly
used in .....
a) Domestic lighting
b) Street lighting
c) Cinema projectors
d) Photography
Answer:- c) Cinema projectors


32. The unit of solid angle is .....
a) Solid angle
b) Radian
c) Steradian
 d) Candcla
Answer:- c) Steradian


33. Candela is the unit of-
a) Luminous flux
b) Luminous intensity
c) Wavelength
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Luminous intensity

34. The unit of luminous flux is ......
a) Sleradian
b) Candela
c) Lumen
d) Lux
Answer:- c) Lumen


35. Luminous efficiency of a
fluorescent, tube is
a) 5- 10 lumens/watt
b) 15-20 lumens/watt
c) 30 - 40 lumens/watt
d) 60 - 65 lumens/watt
Answer:- d) 60 - 65 lumens/watt



36. One lumen per square meter is
the same as
a) One lux
b) One candela
c) One foot candle
d) One lumen meter
Answer:- a) One lux

37. The frequency of dickers in a
fluorescent lamp at 220 V, 50 Hz
supply will be
a) 25 per second
b) 50 per second
c) 100 per second
d) 220 per second
Answer:- c) 100 per second


38. One that is based on forward
biased PN junction is
a) Photo diode
 b) LED
c) Photo voltaic cell
d) Both (a)
Answer:- b) LED

39. Photo diode is used for
detection of
a) Visible light
b) Invisible light
c) No light
d)Both(a)&(b)
Answer:- d)Both(a)&(b)

40. Color of light emitted by
LED depends on
a) Its forward bias .
b) Its reverse bias
c) Forward current
d) Semiconductor material
Answer:- d) Semiconductor
material

41. The earth wire should not
be thinner than a
a) 20 SWG wire
b) 16 SWG wire
c) 10 SWG wire
d) 8 SWG wire
Answer:- d) 8 SWG wire

42. In automobiles the sound
is produced by horn due to
a) Magnetostriction
b) Vibrating diaphragm
c) Moving coil   
d) Oscillating coil
Answer:- b) Vibrating
                    diaphragm


43. In a constant power type
       load
a) Torque is proportional to
    speed
b) Torque is proportional to
    square of speed
c) Torque is inversely proportional
    to speed   
d) Torque is independent of speed.
Answer:- c) Torque is inversely
                   proportional to speed   


44. The frame of an induction motor
 is usually made of-
a) Silicon steel
b) Cast iron
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
Answer:- b) Cast iron


45. Slip rings arc usually made of-
a) Copper
b) Carbon
c) Phosphor bronze
d) Aluminium
Answer:- c) Phosphor bronze


46. In a hydro-electric plant a
conduct system for taking water
from the intake works to the
turbine is known as -
a) Dam
b) Reservoir
c) Penstock
d) Surge tank
Answer:- c) Penstock


47. The shaft of an induction
motor is made from -
a) High speed steel
b) Stainless steel
c) Carbon steel
d) Cast iron
Answer:- c) Carbon steel


48. In a induction motor,
no-load slip is generally -
a) Less than 1 percent
b) 5 percent
c) 2percenl .
d) 4 percent
Answer:- a) Less than
                    1 percent

49. The most common
type of ac motor is the -
a) Single phase induction
    motor
b) Two-phase induction
     motor
c) Three-phase induction
     motor
d) Two-phase squirrel-cage
    motor
Answer:- c) Three-phase
               induction motor


50. A single-phase induction
motor -
a) Is self-starting
b) Operates at a fixed speed
c) Is less reliable than a
three-phase synchronous motor
d) None of the above
Answer:- d) None of the above


FEB 2018
ELECTRICIAN THEORY
SEMESTER-3
PART-1

1. Which type of pitch is commonly
used due to its advantages
during rewinding
a) Short pitch
b) Long pitch
c) Full pitch
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Short pitch
2. Mostly field used in three phase
stator rewinding is_
a) Flat Loop
b) Basket
c) Chain
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Basket

3. The Unit of luminous flux is-
a) Candale Power
b) Lux
c) Lumen
d) Meter Candle
Answer:- c) Lumen

4. The unit of luminous intensity is__
a) Candale Power
b) Lumen
c) Lume Flux
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Candale Power

5. The unit of soild angle is_.
a) Degree
b) Steradian
c) Radian
d) Candale
Answer:- b) Steradian

6. Which lamp is generally used for
lighting purpose ......?
a) Carbon filament Lamp
b) Arc lamp
c) Tungsten filament lamp
d) All of these
Answer:- c) Tungsten filament lamp

7. Carbon Filament Lamp is
used for-
a) Lighting .
b) Battery' Charging
c) Projectors
d) Indicating
Answer:- b) Battery' Charging

8. Which Lamp is used in the
cinema Projectors?
a) Carbon arc lamp
b) Carbon filament lamp
c) Neon lamp
d) Gas discharge lamp
Answer:- a) Carbon arc lamp

9. In a mercury vapour lamp
which gas is filled?
a) Hydrogen
b) Argon
c) Helium
d) Neon
Answer:- b) Argon

10. The Function of auxiliary
electrode in a Mercury vapour
lamp is .........
a) Starting Purposes
b) To drop the voltage
c) To reduce the current
d) Gives more Light
Answer:- a) Starting Purposes
11. Mercury vapour lamps are
made in ............
a) MAT MA and A.B.T type
b) M.A M.B And M.A.T type
c) M.B.T B.C.T and A.B.T type
d) None of these
Answer:- b) M.A M.B And M.A.T type

12. The working temperature of
high pressure mercury vapour
lamp is .........
a) 600° 
b)680°
c) 800°
d) 1200°
Answer:- a) 600° 
13. The sodium vapour lamp has ........
a) Neon gas
b) Helium
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen
Answer:- a) Neon gas

14. Sodium vapour has two
electrodes  .......
a) Oxide coated tungsten
b) Oxide coated carbon
c) Oxide coated nichrome
d) Oxide coated eureka
Answer:- a) Oxide coated tungsten


15. The colour of sodium
vapour lamp light is ......
a) Blue
b)Red
c) Yellow
d) White
Answer:- c) Yellow

16. The working temperature of
sodium vapour is .........
a) 250° C
b) 300°C
c) 450° C
d) 60° C
Answer:- b) 300°C


17. Which lamp takes more time
for giving full light?
a) Sodium vapour lamp
b) Mercury vapour lamp
c) Tungsten filament lamp
d) Neon lamp
Answer:- a) Sodium vapour lamp


18. A sodium vapour
 lamp  has ..........
a) 20-30 lumen/watts
b) 40-50 lumen/watts
c) 55-75 lumen/watts
d) 85-105 lumen/watts
Answer:- d) 85-105 lumen/watts


19. Sodium vapour lamp has
how  much ionization
potential .......
a) 5.12 V
b)6.2 V
c) 6.76 V
d) 7.2 V
Answer:- a) 5.12 V

20. The fluorescent tube
has ...........
a) Mercury vapour
c) Mercury & Argon
b) Neon
d) Helium& Mercury
Answer:- b) Neon


21. The main function of
Choke in a fluorescent tube
a) Induce surge voltage at the
     time of starting
b) To drop the voltage
c) To improve the P.F
d) To induce high voltage and
     limit the current
Answer:- d) To induce high
voltage and limit the current


22. In running condition,
voltage across starter is ...
a) 110 V
b) 180 V
c) 220 V
d) Zero .
Answer:- a) 110 V



23. The light efficiency of
fluorescent tube is .......
a) 40 lumen/watts
b) 45 lumen/watts
c) 60 lumen/watts
d) 75 lumen/watts
Answer:- c) 60 lumen/watts


24. lamp gives direct light when
its filament is heated.
a) Incandescent lamp
b) Gas discharge lamp
c) Neon lamp
d) Arc lamp
Answer:- a) Incandescent lamp


25. The diameter of 40 Watt tube
is .........
a) 12mm
b) 25 mm
c) 30mm
d) 38 mm
Answer:- d) 38 mm

FEB 2018
ELECTRICIAN THEORY
SEMESTER-3
PART-2

26. Gas filled in a tube starter
 is ....
a) Argon
b) Helium
c) Neon
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Helium

27. Condenser is used in tube
circuit to ......
a) To improve the P.F
b) To improve the voltage
c) To safeguard the tube
d) To give full light
Answer:- a) To improve the P.F


28. The inner side colour of the
Reflector is .......
a) Black
b) White
c) Any Dark
d)None of these
Answer:- b) White


29. In a power house, Illumination
should be approximately.......
a) 20-40 Lumen/M²
b) 80-90 Lumen/M²
c) 100-150 Lumen/M²
d) 200-250 Lumen/M²
Answer:- c) 100-150 Lumen/M²


30. In parking lots, illumination
height should be approximately
a) 8 Lumen/M³
 b) 10 Lumen/M³
c) 12 Lumen/M³
d) 80 Lumen/M³
Answer:- c) 12 Lumen/M³


31. When a rotating machine
 is observed under a gas discharge
lamp, it appear to be cither stationary
or seams to be running in reverse
direction. What is reason for it .......?
a) Argon
b) Helium
c) Neon
d) None of these
Answer:- d) None of these


32. The circuit of tube starter
has condenser which ......
a) Reduce the spark
b) Improves power factor
c) Limit the current
d) Reduce the stroboscope effect
Answer:- a) Reduce the spark


33. The diameter of electrode in
a D.C arc lamp is .....
a) Positive electrode very thick
b) Negative electrode very thick
c) Positive electrode very thin
d) Both similar
Answer:- a) Positive electrode
                     very thick


34. Voltage used in D.C arc
lamp is.......
a) 40-60V
b)80-110V
c) 180-210 V
d) 220-250 V
Answer:- a) 40-60V


35. The threaded portion on the
outer side of the edison screw
type lamp holder should be
connected with ........
a) Neutral wire of the circuit
b) Phase wire of the circuit
c) Half wire of the circuit
d) Earth wire of the circuit
Answer:- a) Neutral wire of the
                     circuit


36. The working temperature
of a gas filled tungsten filament
 lamp is ........
a) 1035°c
b) 1200°c
c) 1500°c
d)2300°c
Answer:- d)2300°c


37. Rotary converter is
generally available in .....
a) Single phase
b) Three phase
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Twelve phase
Answer:- b) Three phase


38. Mercury arc rectifier
anodeis made up of ....
a) Carbon
b) Graphite
c) Both(a)&(b)
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Graphite


39. ......... is also known
as hote cathode rectifier.
a) Copper oxide rectifier
b) Tunger bulb rectifier
c) Mercury arc rectifier
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Copper oxide rectifier


40. Machine which converts
A.C into D.C is known as ......
a) Convener
b) Inverter
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Convener


41. In a full wave rectifier,
ripple frequency is equal
to ........
a) 2 F input
b) 3 F input
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) 2 F input


42. Which method is used to
make a full wave rectifier?
a) Bridge method
b) Center tap method
c) Both(a)&(b)
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Both(a)&(b)


43. Rectification is of how
many types .......
a) One
b)Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer:- b)Two

44. The supply in Growler
is ......
a) DC
b) AC
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
Answer:- b) AC


45. The number of coils per
group in balanced winding
 is .........
a) Same
b) Unequal
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None o f these
Answer:- a) Same


46. The mostly used winding
for rewinding is ........
a) Basket winding
b) Chain winding
c) Concentric winding
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Basket winding


47. For earth with testing volt meter
when connected to commutator
segment and body of an amature,
the growler is connected to A.C.
supply. The milli voltmeter should
read .......
a) No reading
b) Low reading
c) Infinity
d) More reading
Answer:- c) Infinity


48. The number of slots with
respect of number of coils in
double layer  winding is ....
a) Same
b) Less
c) More than one
d) Half
Answer:- a) Same
49. Pitch factor in full pitch
winding is .......
a) One
b) Less than one
c) More than one
d) None of these
Answer:- a) One

50. The numbers of windings in
double  cage induction motors
a) One
b)Two
c) Three
d)Four
Answer:- b)Two

Feb 2018
ELECTRICIAN THEORY
SEMESTER-I
PART-1

1. The forbidden energy gap
for germanium is ................
a)  0.3eV  .
b)  3.5 eV   
c)  0.72eV   
d)  1.1 eV
ANSWER:- c)  0.72eV   

2. The bandgap of silicon
at room temperature is ........
a)  1.3eV   
b)  0.7eV   
c)  1.1 eV 
d)  1.4eV
ANSWER:- c)  1.1 eV

3. The earth wires are
made of .......
a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Iron
d) Galvanized stranded
steel
ANSWER:- c) Iron

4. The rating of fuse is
always expressed in .....
a)Volts
b) Amperes
c) Ampere-volts     
d) Ampere hours
ANSWER:- b) Amperes


5. A fuse is .....
a) Always connected in
series with the circuit
b) Always connected in
parallel with the circuit
c) Normally connected in
series with the circuit
d) Normally connected in
parallel with the circuit
ANSWER:- a) Always
connected in series with the
circuit


6. The size of conductor
used in power cables
depends on .........
a) Operating voltage
b) Power factor
c) Current to be carried
d) Type of insulation used
ANSWER:- c) Current to be
                         carried


7. Ohm's law is applied to ........
a) Semiconductors 
b) Electrolytes
c) Carbon resistors 
d) All of these
ANSWER:- c) Carbon resistors

8. Two wires A and B of the
same material and length
L and 2L have radius R and 2R
respectively. The ratio of their
specific resistance will be .............
a) 1:1     b) l:2     c) 1:4      d) 1:8
ANSWER:- b) l:2

9. Ideal voltage sources
    have .............
a) Zero internal resistance
c) Low value of current
b) Infinite internal resistance
d) Large value of emf
ANSWER:- a) Zero internal resistance

10. Kirchhoff s laws are
      valid for .....
a) Linear circuit only
c) Nonlinear circuits only
b) Passive time invariant circuits
d) Both linear and nonlinear
    circuits
ANSWER:- d) Both linear and
                         nonlinear circuits


11. The unit of impedance is .....
a) Ohms
b) Siemens
c) Mho
d) Henry
ANSWER:- a) Ohms


12. The value of peak factor of a
sinusoidal waveform is .......
a) Zero b) 1 c)1.11 d) 1.41
ANSWER:- d) 1.41

13. The algebraic sum of incoming
current is equal to the sum of
outgoing current statement of .....
a) Kirchoff' s current law
b) Kirchoff' s voltage law
c) Ohm's law
d) Joule's law
ANSWER:- a) Kirchoff' s current law

14. A 12 V battery under fully
charged condition has open
circuit voltage of.....
a) 12V 
b) <12V 
c) >12V 
d) <12V
ANSWER:- d) <12V


15. A 100W, 220 volt lamps takes
a current of-
a) 5/11 A
b)2.2A
c) 0.22 A
d) 5/22 A
ANSWER:- a) 5/11 A


16. The r.m.s. value of sinusoidal
alternating current is given by
the relation .....
a) I_m/2
b) 0.637I_m
c) 2I_m/π
d)I_m √2
ANSWER:-

17. In a pure inductive A.C.
circuit ............
a) Voltage leads the current
     vector by 90° 
b) Voltage legs the current
     vector by 90°
c) Current leads the voltage
    vector by 90° 
d) Current is in phase with the
    voltage vector
ANSWER:- a) Voltage leads the
                   current vector by 90° 


18. Primary battery is such a
       battery ........
a) Which can be recharged
b) Which cannot be reconditioned
     by replacing chemical
c) Which cannot be reused
d) Which cannot be recharged
ANSWER:- d) Which cannot
                          be recharged


19. Internal resistance of a battery
      cell increases with ......
a) Increases in concentration of
     electrolyte
b) Increase in distance between two
     electrodes
c) Increases in area of the plates
     inside the electrolyte
d) Increase in size of the electrodes
ANSWER:- b) Increase in distance
between two  electrodes


20. If cells are connected in series,
      then .......... will increase.
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Power
d) Energy
ANSWER:- b) Voltage


21. Type equation here.If Z
is the electro - Chemical equivalent
of a substance of the electrolyte.
E is the chemical equivalent of the
same substance, then the relation
 between Z & E will be ......
a) Z ∝ E     
b) Z = E   
c) Z < E   
d) Z > E
ANSWER:- a) Z ∝ E

22. Negative electrode or anode
of simple voltaic cell is made of....
a) Copper
b) Zinc
c) Lead
d) Carbon
ANSWER:-

23. E.C.E stands for.....
a) Electrovalent chemical equivalent
b) Electrolysis cathode equivalent
c) Electro chemical equivalent
d) None of these
ANSWER:- c) Electro chemical
equivalent


24. Resistivity of metals is expressed
in terms of.....
a)µΩ             
b) µΩ-cm/ °C     
c) µΩ  - cm   
d) Ω
ANSWER:- c) µΩ  - cm

25. Permittivity of free space is
equal to .....
a)  8.84xlO¯¹²F/m
b)  8.84x10¯¹³F /m
c)  8.84.x 10¯¹¹F/m
d)  8.84x 10¯¯¹°F/m
ANSWER:- a)  8.84xlO¯¹²F/m

Feb 2018
ELECTRICIAN THEORY
SEMESTER-I
PART-2


26. Which resistor will be physically
larger in size? .......
a) 100 Ω, 10 W       
b) 10 Ω, 50 W
c) 1 MΩ, 1/2 W
a) 1 kΩ, 1 W
ANSWER:- b) 10 Ω, 50 W


27. Two resistor are said to be
       connected in-parallel when -
a) Same current passes in turn
     through both
b) Both carry the same value
     of current
c) Voltage across each resistance
     are same
d) Voltage across each resistance
     are not same
ANSWER:- c) Voltage across each
                        resistance are same


28. The electrical resistance of
       human body is around .....
a) 5 ohms
b) 25 ohms
c) 250 ohms
d) 1000 ohms
ANSWER:- d) 1000 ohms


29. A3 Ω resistor having 2A current
 will dissipate the power of.....
a)2W
b)4W
c)8W
d) 12 W
ANSWER:- d) 12 W


30. The filament of an electric
bulb is made of......
a)  Carbon
b)   Nickel
c)   Aluminium
d)   Tungsten
ANSWER:- d) Tungsten


31. An current of 6 A is same as ...
a) 6 Joule / Second
b) 6 Coulomb / Second
c) 6 Watt /Second
d) None of these
ANSWER:- b) 6 Coulomb / Second


32. The equation of alternating
current is i=42.4 sin 621t. Then
the average value of current
a)  42.42A     
b)  27 A
c)   38 A
 d)  22A
ANSWER:- b)  27 A


33. The rms value of a half wave
rectified symmetrical square wave
current of 2 A by.......
a) 0.707 A
b) 1 A
c) 1.414 A
d) 1.732 A
ANSWER:- c) 1.414 A


34. A capacitor stores 0.24
coulombs at 10 volts. Its
capacitance is .......
a) 0.024 F
b) 0.12 F
c) 0.60 F
d) 0.80 F
ANSWER:- a) 0.024 F


35. If the sheet of a backelite is
inserted  between the plates of
an air capacitor, the capacitance
will .........
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Becomes zero
d) Remains unchanged
ANSWER:- b) Increase


36. Three capacitors each of
capacity C are given. The resultant
capacity (2/3) C obtained by
using them ..........
a) All in series
b) All in parallel
c) Two in parallel and third in series
     with this combination
d) Two in series and third in parallel
     across this combination '
ANSWER:- c) Two in parallel and
third in series with this combination


37. The power dissipated in a pure
capacitor is ........
a) Zero
b) Proportional to applied voltage
c) Proportional to the value of capa
citance 
d) Both (b) & (c)
ANSWER:- a) Zero


38. Three element having conductance
Gb G2 and G3 are connected in
parallel. Their ' combined conductance
will be .....
a) (G_1 + G_2 + G_3)¯¹
b)    G_1 +G_2 + G_3
c) 1/G_1+ 1/G_2 + I/G_3 ₁
d) (1/G_1+ 1/G_2 + I/G_3) ¯¹
ANSWER:- b)    G_1 +G_2 + G_3


39. Which of the following materials
has highest electrical conductivity?
a)Steel
b) Aluminium
c) Copper
d) Silver
ANSWER:- d) Silver


40. If the phase angle between
voltage and current of a l-Ф AC
current is 60°, then factor is the
circuit is ......
a)  0.2
b)  0.5
c)  0.707
d)  1.0
ANSWER:- b)  0.5


41. The current in the resistor R
shown in Figure will be ......
a)  0.2 A   
b)  0.4A 
c)  0.6A 
d)  0.8A


ANSWER:-

42. Which of the following has
positive temperature coefficient?
a) Germanium
b) Gold
c) Paper
d) Rubber
ANSWER:- b) Gold


43. Which law(s) find application
in electrolysis?
a) Ohms' law
b) Gauss's law     
c) Faradays' law   
d) Coulomb s
ANSWER:- c) Faradays' law

44. Silver coating is provided for ...
a) Protective purpose .   
b) Decorative purpose
c) Bearing surface
d) All of these
ANSWER:- d) All of these


45. The permanent magnets are
made from which of following
materials?
a) Soft iron
b) Ferromagnetic   
c) Paramagnetic     
d) Diamagnelic
ANSWER:- b) Ferromagnetic

46. The Biot-savarfs law is a
general modification of......
a) Kirchhoff s law   
b) Lenz's law
c) Ampere's law     
d) Faradays' law
ANSWER:- c) Ampere's law

47. 1 Maxwell is the same as ...
a) 〖10〗^(-8) weber
b) 〖10〗^8weber
c) 〖10〗^4 weber
d) 〖10〗^(-4)weber
ANSWER:- b) 〖10〗^8weber


48. The direction of induced
emf can be found by .....
a) Laplace's law
b) Kirchhoff's
voltage law
c) Lenz's law
d) Fleming's right hand rule
ANSWER:- d) Fleming's right
                         hand rule

49. A closed switch has a
resistance of ......
a) Zero
 b) About 50 ohms   
c) About 500 ohms 
d) Infinite
ANSWER:- a) Zero

50. The energy stored in an
 inductor of inductor L Henry
is represented as ......
a)     i^2L
 b)    〖iL〗^2
c)     (l/2)Li^2
d)     L^2/i
ANSWER:- c)     (l/2)Li^2

Feb 2018
MMV
THEORY
SEMESTER - I


1.      What is first aid?
a)  Completing a primary survey
b)  The first help given to injured
c)  Assessment of loss
d)  Treating an injured
Answer:- b)  The first help given to injured
2. The following is indirect cost
    of accident: -
a)  Money paid for treatment
b)  Compensation
c)  Cost of lost time of injured
d)  All of these
Answer:- c)  Cost of lost time of injured
3. Class - A fire consists of fire
    due to: -
a)  Wood
b)  Oil
c)  Transformer
d)  Chemical
Answer:- a)  Wood

4. Minimum reading taken by
    micrometer screw gauge is: -
a)  0.1 cm
b)  0.01 mm
c)  0.1 mm
d)  0.01 m
Answer:- b)  0.01 mm

5. Which of the following is hardest
    material?
a) Copper
b) Ceramics
c) Steel
d) Diamond
Answer:- d) Diamond

6. File used for wood work is: -
a) Single cut file .
b) Double cut file
c) Rasp cut file
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Rasp cut file

7. What is mean by the rate of
     flow of an electric charge?
a) Electric current
b) Electric potential
c) Electric resistance
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Electric current

8. Which type of nut prevents
slipping while tightening?
a) Square nut
 b) Hexagonal nut
c) Castle nut
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Hexagonal nut
9. Annealing improves: -
a) Grain size
c) Electrical properties
b) Mechanical properties
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these
10. Which of the following
joints have high corrosion resistance?
a) Welded joint
b) Riveted joint
c) Bolted joint
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Welded joint
11. An "n" type semiconductor is: -
a) Positively charged
b) Negatively charged
c) Electrically neutral
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Electrically neutral

12. The positive plates of nickel
 iron cell is made by:
a) Nickel hydroxide
b) Lead peroxide
c) Ferrous hydroxide
d) Potassium hydroxide
Answer:- a) Nickel hydroxide

13. Which one is best suited to
extinguishing oil or flammable
 liquid fire?
a) Soda acid
b) Vaporizing liquid
c) Foam
d) Dry chemical
Answer:- c) Foam

14. Range of measuring tape is: -
a) 1 meter
b) Several meters
c) 2 meters
d) 1 Kilometer
Answer:- b) Several meters

15. Cutting forces at the cutting tool
can be measured by: -
a) Dynamometer
b) Viscosity meter
c) Sine bar
d) Combination set
Answer:- a) Dynamometer
16. Check list for job safety
      analysis consists of: -
a) Work area, material, machine, tools     
b) Men, machine, material, tools
c) Men, machine, work-areas, tools
d) Men, work area, material, tools
Answer:- a) Work area, material,
machine, tools
17. A connecting rod is made by: -
a) Casting
b) Drawing
c) Forging .
d) Extrusion
Answer:- c) Forging
18. Minimum reading of
      Vernier calipers is: -
a)   1 mm
b)   1 cm
c)   0.1 mm
d)   0.1 cm
Answer:- c)   0.1 mm

19. What is the unit of potential difference?
a) Ohm
b) Volt meter
c) Volt
d) Ampere meter
Answer:- c) Volt

20. Which one is the example of
plastic welding?
a) Gas welding
b) Arc welding
c) Forge welding
d) Thermit welding
Answer:- c) Forge welding

21. Which of the following cutting
condition is more affects the tool wear?
a) Cutting speed
b) Feed
c) Depth of cut
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Cutting speed

22. A battery consists of: -
a) Diodes
b) Circuits
c) Generator .
d) Number of cells
Answer:- d) Number of cells

23. Industrial safety management is
the branch of management which is
concerned with  ... hazards from
 the industries.
a) Reducing
b) Controlling
c) Eliminating
d) All of these
Answer:- a) Reducing

24. Which of the following tools
are generally manufactured by
powder metallurgy?
a) Low carbon steel
b) High carbon steel
c) Abrasives
d) Cemented carbide
Answer:- d) Cemented carbide

25. When a pure semiconductor
is heated, its resistance ......
a) Goes up
b) Goes down
c) Not changed
d) Can't say
Answer:- b) Goes down

26. A screw jack is used where do
we need .............
a) Rotational motion
b) Linear motion
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Linear motion

27. The clearance angle is provided
on the tools due to: -
a) Strength the tool
b) Shear off the metal
c) For easy flow of chips
d) Prevent the tool from rubbing on
    work piece
Answer:- d) Prevent the tool from rubbing on
                      work piece

28. The following is used to check the
diameters of holes: -
a) Plug gauge
b) Ring gauge
c) Slip gauge
d) Standard screw pitch gauge
Answer:- a) Plug gauge

29. In oxy-acetylene welding colour of
      oxygen cylinder is: -
a) Red
b) Maroon
c) Black
d) Brown
Answer:- c) Black

30. Materials are softened by: -
a) Carburising
b) Tempering
c) Normalising
d) Annealing
Answer:-
31. Which property is used to
oppose the  flow of current?
a) Potential difference
b) Capacitance
c) Inductance
d) Resistance
Answer:- d) Resistance

32. The following class of fire
occurs in electrical equipment: -
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) All of these
Answer:- c) Class C fires

33. Which type of thread is used
 in screw jacks?
a) V thread
b) Acme thread
c) Square thread
d) None ot these
Answer:-c) Square thread
34. Water is used to extinguish?
a) Class A fires     
b) Class B fires     
c) Class C fires     
d) All of these
Answer:- a) Class A fires
35. The following is generally provided
with limit switch to prevent motion
beyond preset limit: -
a) Hoists
b) Machine tables
c) Conveyors
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these

36. Sulphation in a lead acid battery
occurs due to: -
a) Heavy charging
b) Fast charging
c) Slow charging
d) Incomplete char,
Answer:- d) Incomplete char,

37. Which one of the following sequences
will give the best accuracy as well as surface
finish?
a) Drilling, Reaming, Grinding
b) Drilling, Boring, Grinding
c) Drilling, Reaming, Lapping
d) Drilling, Reaming, Electroplating
Answer:- c) Drilling, Reaming, Lapping

38. What is the SI unit of electric current?
a) Ampere
b) Ohm .
c) Faraday
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Ampere

39. Which one is not the part of a
two stroke petrol engine?
a) Piston
b) Valves
c) Connecting rod
d) Spark plugs
Answer:- a) Piston
40. Acetylene can be prepared by
chemical reaction between: -
a) Water & calcium carbide
b) Water & chemical carbonate
c) Hydrogen & calcium carbide
d) Hydrogen & chemical carbonate
Answer:- a) Water & calcium carbide

41. Which flame is suitable for
welding of nonferrous metals?
a) Oxidising flame
b) Carbuising flame
c) Neutral flame
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Oxidising flame

42. As the temperature of a transistor
goes up, the base emitter resistance: -
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains the same
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Decreases
43. What is the frequency of domestic
power in India?
a) 105 Hz
b)60Hz
c) 210 Hz
d)50Hz
Answer:- d)50Hz

44. The capacity of a cell is
measured in ..........
a) Ampere
b) Ampere-hour
c) Watts
d) Watts-hours
Answer:- b) Ampere-hour

45. The following is not used to
measure angles: -
a) Bevel protector
b) Calibrated levels
c) Clinometers
d) Optical flats
Answer:- b) Calibrated levels

46. Which of the following gas
mixture is not used in Gas Tungsten
arc welding?
a) Argon-Helium
b) Argon-Nitrogen
c) Argon-Hydrogen
d) Argon-Carbon dioxide
Answer:- b) Argon-Nitrogen

47. Heat engine uses ........ energy to
produce mechanical work.
a) Thermal
b) Fluid
c) Kinetic
d) Electric
Answer:- a) Thermal

48. The degree of closeness of the
measured  value of certain quantity
with its true value is known as: -
a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Standard
d) Sensitivity
Answer:- a) Accuracy

49. In an automobile engine, indication
of knocking is available in the form of: -
a) Light
b)Gas
c) Sound
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Sound

50. A transistor is a__
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Both (a) & (b)
operated device.
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Current

ELECTRICIAN THEORY
SEMESTER-II
PART-1

1. The EMF (Es) equation of the
 transformer in the secondary side is .....
a) Eѕ= 4.44𝛟мf Nр Volt
b) Eѕ =  4.44𝛟мNѕ Volt Volt
c) Eѕ = 4.44𝛟 мf Nѕ Volt
d) Eѕ = 4.44 𝛟 мf Volt
Answer:- c) Eѕ = 4.44𝛟 мf Nѕ Volt

2. Buchholz's relay is connected in high
capacity power transformers. The purpose
of the Buchholz relay is to........
a) Arrest the flow of moisture into the tank
b) Disconnect the transformer,
    when dead short circuit fault occurs
c) Flow insulating oil from the
    conservator tank
d) Control the level of oil tank
Answer:- b) Disconnect the transformer,
    when dead short circuit fault occurs

3. A 5KVA, 400V/200V transformer
delivers a current of 25 Amps in secondary.
What is the current in primary side?
a) 50 Amps
b) 25 Amps
c) 17.5 Amps
d) 12.5 Amps
Answer:- d) 12.5 Amps

4. In full wave rectification, if the input
frequency is 50 Hz, then frequency
at the output of
filter is-
a) 50 Hz
b) 0 Hz
c) 100 Hz
d) 75 Hz
Answer:- b) 0 Hz

5. In a CE amplifier circuit the ac
    voltage between emitter and ground-
a) Is very high
b) May be high or low
c) Is zero
d) Depends upon circuit configuration
Answer:- c) Is zero

6. Which material is used for wiring
    continuous bus bar?
a) Aluminium
b) Copper
c) Both (A) and (B)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Aluminium

7. When the coil moves at right angle to
the magnetic flux, the induced emf will be
a) Oscillating
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Maximum
Answer:- d) Maximum

8. Which among these is a method of wiring?
a) Joint box
b) Tee system
c) Loop in system
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these

9. The magnitude of the induced emf.
at zero degree angle is given by the formula
E₀ = BLVsinθ
a) Induced voltage
b) Velocity of loop rotation
c) Value of the magnetic flux density
d) Velocity of the cutting force by
magnetic lines
Answer:- b) Velocity of loop rotation

10. The direction of rotation of do
shunt motor can be reversed by
interchanging-
a) The supply terminals
b) The field terminals
c) The armature terminals only
d) Either field or armature terminals
Answer:- d) Either field or armature
                  terminals


11. With the increase in the speed
       of a do motor-
a) Both back emf as well as line current
     increase
b) Both back emf and line current fall
c) Back emf increases but the line
    current falls
d) Back emf falls and line current
     increases
Answer:- c) Back emf increases but the line
                  current falls

12. According to the IS recommendation
the clearance between the bottom part
of the ceiling
fan and the floor should not be less than -
a) 1.3 m
b) 2.0m
c) 2.25 m
d) 2.40 m
Answer:- d) 2.40 m

13. Two pin sockets should not be
used in domestic wiring unless the
appliance to be
connected is -
a) Double earthed
b) Double insulated
c) Controlled by ELCB
d) Controlled by MCB
Answer:- b) Double insulated

14. D.C. shunt motors are commonly
used in-
a) Cranes
b) Electric traction
c) Elevators
d) Lathe machines
Answer:- d) Lathe machines

15. Size of the plate electrode used for
plate earthing should not be less than -
a) 12.5x12.5x0.12 cm
b) 20 x 20 x 0.25 cm
c) 30 x 30 x 0.28 cm
d) 60 x 60 x 0.315 cm
Answer:- d) 60 x 60 x 0.315 cm

16. In which principle, the earth resistance
tester does work?
a) Fall of resistivity method
b) Fall of potential method
c) Wheatstone bridge principle     
d) Fall of conductivity method
Answer:- b) Fall of potential method

17. What is the function of current reverses
which is used in earth resistance tester?
a) To convert AC voltage into DC voltage
b) To convert DC voltage into AC voltage
c) To reduce the vibration of the pointer
d) To reduce the effect of electrolytic emf
Answer:- d) To reduce the effect of electrolytic emf

18. You have to select a PF meter
suitable for connecting in a circuit for
PF measurements on what basis you will
select its range?
a) Suitability for the type of load
     (Inductive / capacitive/ Resistance)
b) PF range of meter (Lagging /
    Leading)Unity)
c) Voltage and current range of meter
    suitable to load
d) Current and PF range of meter
     matching to load
Answer:- c) Voltage and current range of meter
    suitable to load

19. Ammeters used for current
measurements in circuits with short
over load time, differs from other
application. Ammeter used in short
overload time circuit have -
a) Non-linear scale
b) Extended scale
c) Linear scale
d) Fine scale
Answer:- b) Extended scale

20. Instruments which must not be
used in the circuit when the power is
ON are -
a) Watt meter and PF meter
b) Frequency meter and Tong tester
c) Phase sequence meter and energy
    meter 
d) Ohmmeter and Megger
Answer:- d) Ohmmeter and Megger
21. Two types of multimeters are in use.
Analog type and Digital type. Chose the
correct statement applicable for both
the types. Both the meters -
a) Have moving elements, hence must
     be used in horizontal position
b) Can be used for current and voltage
     measurement without battery
c) Need manual zero setting for
     resistance measurement
d) Need battery for resistance
    measurements
Answer:- d) Need battery for resistance
    measurements

22. Power drawn by a welding shop
which has 3 phase, 415 V, 50Hz
 supply has to be measured. The
following loads are connected,
(a) 2 welding set of each 5KVA across
L1,L2 and 13. (b) One set of 5KVA
across L2 arid L3. What is the type of
wattmeter you
would choose for this measurement?
a) 3 element 3 wire type 3 phase
    wattmeter
b) One single phase wattmeter
     connected
between any two phase and multiply
 reading by three
c) 3 element 4 wire 3 phase watt meter
d) 2 element types 3 phase watt meter
Answer:- d) 2 element types 3 phase watt meter

23. D.C shunt motor is also called as-
a) Constant flux motor
b) Constant voltage motor
c) Variable voltage motor
d) Constant current motor
Answer:- a) Constant flux motor

24. To keep the continuity of serial
 lamp set circuit even across the fuse
bulb it is customaryto connect a
device across the each bulb as precaution.
What is the name of such device?
a) NTC thermistors
b) PTC thermistors
c) Voltage dependent resistor
d) Flasher
Answer:- a) NTC thermistors
25. The starter of a fluorescent tube
 has been removed from its holder
after the tubes is lighted. What will
happen to the function of the tube?
a) Tube will begin to flicker
b) Tube will go out immediately
c) Tube will operate normally
d) Tube will begin to hum very much
 Answer:- c) Tube will operate normally

Feb 2018
ELECTRICIAN THEORY
SEMESTER-II
PART-2

26. For a constant torque load,
if the armature resistance of
shunt motor is doubled (keeping
the shunt field constant) then the
 armature current will become-
a) Double
b) Halved
c) Remain same
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Remain same

27. Light used in the front yard
of the house should not attract
 insect in view of safety. Which
type of lamp you will avoid?
a) Mercury vapor lamp
 b) Sodium vapor lamp
c) Halogen lamp
d) GLS lamp
Answer:- a) Mercury vapor lamp

28.What is the temperature at which
a gas filled tungsten filament lamp
operates?
a) 1035° C
b)1200°
c) 1500°C
d)2300°C
Answer:- d)2300°C

29. A 4 pole, 220 V, 10 H.P, d.c.
shunt motor is rotating at a speed
of 320 rpm. The developed useful
 torque will be-
a) 210.647 N-m
b) 215.547 N-m
c) 219.484 N-m
d) None of these
Answer:- c) 219.484 N-m

30. The maximum value of sine wave
of AC voltage is 10V. What is its
RMS value?
a) 1.414 V
b) 6.060 V
c) 7.070 V
d) 14.140 V
Answer:- c) 7.070 V

31. Which of the following oscillators
 is suitable for frequencies in the range
of mega hertz?
a) RC phase shift
b) Wien bridge
c) Hartley
d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:- c) Hartley

32. In a BJT circuit a pnp transistor is
replaced by npn transistor. To analyze
 the new circuit-
a) All calculations done earlier have
     to be repeated
b) Replace all calculated voltages
     by reverse values
c) Replace all calculated currents by
     reverse values
d) Replace all calculated voltages and
     currents by river values
Answer:- d) Replace all calculated voltages and
     currents by river values

33. When the value of capacitance is
increased in series resistance circuit,
the frequency will-
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) No change
d) Becomes zero
Answer:- a) Decrease

34. The output indicated on the name
plate of any motor is always the-
a) Gross power
b) Power drawn in volt amperes
c) Power drawn in watts
d) Output power at the shaft
Answer:- d) Output power at the shaft

35. To protect the diodes in a rectifier
and capacitor input filter circuit it is
necessary to use-
a) Surge resistor
b) Surge inductor
c) Surge capacitor
d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:- a) Surge resistor

36. The D.C shunt motor speed is
to be varied from zero to above
normal with reversing facility having
inherent stability of speed at all loads.
What speed control method is to be
used?
a) Supply voltage speed control
     method   
b) Ward-Leonard system of
     speed control
c) Shunt field control method
d) Armature speed control method
Answer:- b) Ward-Leonard system of
     speed control
37. An RC oscillator uses-
a) One RC combination
b) Two RC combinations
c) At last three RC combinations
d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:- c) At last three RC combinations
38, You notice that a D.C motor starts
with jerk when starting the motor.
What may be fault for this effect?
a) line voltage too high
b) Short circuit of the field winding
c) Pitted starter contact terminals
d) Wrong grade of carbon brushes
Answer:- c) Pitted starter contact terminals

39. The gain of an FET amplifier
can be changed by changing-
a) rm
b)gm
c) Rd
d) None of these
Answer:- b)gm

40. The direction of rotation of a
D.C motor is determined by_.
a) Fleming's right hand rule
b) Fleming's left hand rule
c) Ampere's right hand grip rule
d) Maxwell's cork screw rule
Answer:- b) Fleming's left hand rule

41. A 220V, DC machine has an
armature resistance of 0.5 ohm.
If the armature current is amps,
the induced emf when the machine
work as-
(i) Generator
(ii) Motor will be respectively
a) 220V, 210V
b) 210V, 230V
c) 200V, 230V
d) 190V, 240V
Answer:- b) 210V, 230V

42. The D.C motor works on
       the principle that the-
a) Current carrying conductor
 placed in a uniform magnetic
field experiences a force on it
b) Conductor moves when kept
 in a uniform magnetic field
c) Magnetic field set up by varying
current which produces force in the
conductor
d) Combined magnetic field set up
by two current carrying conductors
produces a force between them
Answer:- a) Current carrying conductor
 placed in a uniform magnetic
field experiences a force on it

43. A DC shunt motor is running on
no-load. If the field winding gets
opened, what will be the condition
of the motor?
a) The motor will stop
b) The motor will burn out
c) The motor will run at high speed
d) The motor will make noise
Answer:- a) The motor will stop
44. The starting current of a 220V.
10 HP shunt motor having an
armature resistance of 0.2 ohms,
without starter is_.
a) 11 amps
b) 110 amps
c) 1100 amps
d) 11000 amps
Answer:- c) 1100 amps

45. The starting resistance of 3 point
starter in D.C motor is connected with_
a) Parallel across the armature
b) Series with the armature
c) Parallel across the field winding
d) Series with the field winding
Answer:- b) Series with the armature

46. The standard rated value of secondary
current of current transformer as per IS 2705
(Part 1) - 1981 shall be either_.
a) 5 Ampere or 10 Ampere
b) 2.5 Ampere or 5 Ampere
c) 1.5 Ampere or 6 Ampere
d) 1 Ampere or 5 Ampere
Answer:- d) 1 Ampere or 5 Ampere

47. The rated secondary voltage of a
 single phase potential transformer is
a) 240V
b) 230V
c) 115V
d)110V
Answer:- d)110V

48. Efficiency of transformer is
determined by knowing its input
and output power. What is the     unit
used for input and output when
calculating the all day efficiency?
a) KVAR
b) KW
c) KVA
d) KWh
Answer:- d) KWh

49. The function of conservator in a
transformer is_
a) To prevent flow of moisture into
     the tank
b) To prevent flow of air into the tank
c) To regulate the expansion and
     contraction of oil
d) To improve power factor
Answer:- c) To regulate the expansion and
     contraction of oil

50. What will happen to 415V/240V,
1KVA transformer when it is connected
to a D.C supply?
a) The output will be 240V
 b) The output will be 415V
c) The transformer may burn      .
d) Remain as it is
Answer:- c) The transformer may burn   

FEBRUARY 2016
WORKSHOP CALCULATION & SCIENCE
SEMESTER - II

1. Add the expression:
(3x+3y);(5x-4z);(9z-3y)
a.  8x+5z
b.  -8x+5z
c.  8x-5z
d.  -8x-5z
Answer:- a.  8x+5z

2. Multiply: (2a+b) (a+2b)
a.  2a²-5ab-2b²
b.  2a²-5ab+2b²
c.  2a²+5ab+2b²
d.  2a²+5ab-2b²
Answer:- c. 2a²+5ab+2b²

3. Simplify the expression:
5x+20/7x+28 is
a.  5/7
b.   -5/7
c.  7/5
d.  -7/5
Answer:- a.  5/7

4. The formula for (a+b)² = .............
a.    a² + b² - 2ab
b.    a²-b²-2ab
c.    a² + b² + 2ab
d.    a² - b² + 2ab
Answer:- c.    a² + b² + 2ab


5. Solve x, y; x+y=18and x-y=2.
 a.  10,8
b.  -10,8
c.  10, -8
d.  -10. -8
Answer:- a.  10,8

6. Kelvin is the unit of ..............
a.   power
b.   heat
c.   temperature
d.   energy
Answer:- c.   temperature

7. One calorie = ............
a.  9.8 J
b.  5.2J
c.  4.2J
d.  0.4536J
Answer:- c.  4.2J

8. Which instrument is used
to measure the
temperature above
300°C?
a.  Gas thermometer
b.  Alcohol thermometer
c.  Mercury thermometer
d.  Pyrometer
Answer:- d.  Pyrometer

9. Transmission of heat energy
by contact is
known as ...............
a.  radiation
b.  convection
c.  conduction
d.  evaporation
Answer:- c.  conduction

10. Boiling point of water in Reaumer scale
is ...............
a.  80°R
b.  100°R
c.  212°R
d.  373°R
Answer:- a.  80°R

11. If the circumference of a circle is 44cm. Find
its area (Take π = 22/7)
a.  134 cm²
b.  144 cm²
c.  154 cm²
d.  164 cm²
Answer:- c.  154 cm²

12. Find the area of a right angled triangle with
base 20 cm and height 8 cm?
a.  90 cm²
b.  80 cm²
c.  70 cm²
d.  60 cm²
Answer:- b.  80 cm²

13. Calculate the volume of cuboid box whose
length is 10 metre, breadth is 12 metre and
height is 5 metre.
a.  300 m³
b.  400 m³
c.  500 m³
d.  600 m³
Answer:- d.  600 m³

14. The formula for total surface area of sphere
is.......
a.  πr²
b.  2 πr²
c.  3πr²
d.  4πr²
Answer:- d.  4πr²

15. Calculate the volume of a cylinder whose
base area is 120 cm2 and height of the
cylinder is 16cm.
a.  1600 cm³
b.  1920 cm³
c.  2240 cm³
d.  2420 cm³
Answer:- b.  1920 cm³
16. Unit of resistance .............
a.  ampere
b.  volt
c.  ohm
d.  mho
Answer:- c.  ohm

17. Which one is a conductor?
a.  Copper
b.  Porcelain
c.  Wood
d.  Rubber
Answer:- a.  Copper

18. Which type of current is produced
      from a cell
or a battery?
a.  Static current
b.  Direct Current (DC)
c.  Alternating Current (AC)
d.  AC and DC
Answer:- b.  Direct Current (DC)

19. To measure the electric power
which of the following meter is used?
a.   Ammeter
b.   Wattmeter
c.   Voltmeter
d.   Ohm meter
Answer:- b.   Wattmeter
20. In a parallel connection circuit
the voltage across each resistance is.......
a.  different
b.  same
c.  low
d.  high
Answer:- b.  same
21. 1/3π = ..................
a.  30°
b.  40°
c.  45°
d.  60°
Answer:- d.  60°
22. If coseƟ = 1/√2. Find the value of tanƟ
a.  1
b.  1/2
c.  √3/2
d.  √3
Answer:- a.  1


23. Find the value of sin 30°.
a.  1/√2
b.  1/2
c.  √3/2
d.  1
Answer:- b.  1/2


24.  An example of 2nd order lever is ....
a.   common balance
b.   cutting plier
c.   wheel barrow
d.   scissor
Answer:- c.   wheel barrow

25. The ratio between load and effort is called .....
a.  mechanical advantage
b.  velocity ratio
c.  efficiency
d.  force
Answer:- a.  mechanical advantage

17/A/C/S-l/4/Engg/Non Engg
PAPER-I
PART - B (EMPLOYAB1IJTY SKILLS)
SEMESTER-I
(MORNING SESSION)
(2Year Trades)

1.  Which of the following sentences
 is correct------
a) The tired old man just lay down
     and died.
b) The tired old man lied down
     and died.
c) The tired old man just laid down
    and died.
d) None of these
Answer:- a) The tired old man just
                      lay down and died.

2.  Which of the following spellings
is correct-----
a) Computer
b) Cumputer
c) Computor
d) Curnputor
Answer:- a) Computer

3.  Which of the following spellings
is correct..........
a) Futball
b) Fuutball
c) Football
d) Foobal
Answer:- c) Football

4.  Active Voice: The sailor anchored
 his boat in the harbour.
a) The sailor anchored the boat
b) The boat was anchored by the sailor
     in the harbour
c) The boat was anchored by the sailor
d) None of these
Answer:- b) The boat was anchored by
                      the sailor in the harbour

5.  The past tense for SPEAK is-
a) Speaked
b) Speaking
c) Spokes
d) Spoke
Answer:- d) Spoke

6.  Which of the following sentences is
correct............
a) 1 have 2 brother
b) 1 have 2 brothers
c) 1 have 1 brothers
d) None of these
Answer:- b) 1 have 2 brothers

7.  My father is___ engineer.
a) One
b) A
c) An
d) None of these
Answer:- c) An

8.  Good___I am going to steep.
a) Morning
b) Afternoon
c) Evening
d) Night
Answer:- d) Night

9. In computers, OS stands for-
a) Operating Software
b) Opening Service
c) Opening Statement
d) Operating System
Answer:- a) Operating Software

10. The command to copy a folder or a
file is .............
a) Fn + C
b) Alt + C
c) Ctrl + C
d) Shift + C
Answer:- c) Ctrl + C

11. The shortcut command to print a
word document is .............
a) Print Screen
b) Ctrl + P
c) Shift + P
d) Alt + P
Answer:- b) Ctrl + P

12.  WAN stands for-
a) Winning And Networking
b) Windows Access Network
c) Wide Access Network
d) Wide Area Network
Answer:- d) Wide Area Network

13. Which ol'the following is a social
media site?
a) www.googlc -com
b) www.wikipedia.cong
c) www.facebook.com
d) www.skyscanner.com
Answer:- c) www.facebook.com
14. Which of the following is
an anti-virus?
a) Norton
b) Mozilla
c) Internet Explorer
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Norton

15  The vertical lines in an excel
sheet are known as-
a) Rows
b) Columns
c) Matrix
d) Pillars
Answer:- b) Columns

16.The ...........  is used to send
messages through electronic media.
a) Snail Mail
b) E-Mail
c) Post Mail
d) Air Mail                                                                                                                                                                                  Answer:- b) E-Mail
17.  For effective communication,
there has to be a__and a receiver.
a) Transmitter
b) Painter
c) Sender
d) Carpenter
Answer:- c) Sender

18. Communication is___
a) Exchange of information
b) Piece ot information
c) Bank of information
d) Reservoir of information
Answer:- a) Exchange of information

19. Written communication uses_____
a) Letter
b) Body language   
c) Speech
d) Computer
Answer:- a) Letter

20. Which of the following is not part
of effective communication?
a) Message
b) Channel
c) Feedback
d) Radio
Answer:- d) Radio

21. Eye contact is considered to be
which of the following communication?
a) Verbal
b) Non verbal
c) Oral
d) Written
Answer:- b) Non verbal

22. According to bodv language,
biting of nails indicates ______
a) Stress
b) Happy
c) Relaxed
d) All of these
Answer:- a) Stress

23. Which of the following is
considered to be effective listening skill?
a) Stop talking when speaker is talking   
b) Focus on the speaker
c) Encourage speaker
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these

24. Which of the following is correct
grooming standard for gentlemen while
attending interviews?
a) Clean Shave     
b) Shorts
c) Slippers
d) Long hair
Answer:- a) Clean Shave     

25. Which of the following is not part
of Triple - A listening?
a) Attitude
b) Absorb
c) Attention
d) Adjustment
Answer:- b) Absorb

JULY2016
MECHANIC DIESEL
THEORY
SEMESTER - II
PART-2
1. Morse test can be conducted
for  ........
(a) Petrol engines
b) Diesel engines
c) Multi cylinder engines
d) All of these
Answer:- c) Multi cylinder engines


2. Which of the following is a unit
 of pressure?
a) Kg/cm²
b) gama
c) Pie
d) Newton
Answer:- a) Kg/cm²

3. During the suction stroke of a
diesel engine ........
a) Petrol injected
b) Diesel injected
c) Diesel and air supplied
d) Only air supplied
Answer:- d) Only air supplied


4. In an automobile engine,
the temperature of piston will
be more at the ................
a) Piston pin
b) Skirt of piston
c) Crown of piston
d) Piston rings
Answer:- c) Crown of piston


5. In the compression stroke
the piston moves from ........
a)T.D.C to B.D.C
b) B.D.C. to T.D.C
c) Below B.D.C.
d) Above T.D.C.
Answer:- b) B.D.C. to T.D.C


6. Piston slap in a cold engine is
due to ..........
a) Excessive ring gap
b) Excessive piston to bore clearance
c) Less piston working clearance
d) Excessive compression pressure
Answer:- b) Excessive piston to bore clearance

7. Heater plugs are used to warm up.......
a) Fuel pump
b) Feed pump
c) Injector
d) Combustion chamber
Answer:- d) Combustion chamber


8. In one revolution of a 2-stroke
engine of crank shaft, the inlet
value opens ............
a) 1 Time
b) 2Times
c) 3 Times
d) 4 Times
Answer:- a) 1 Time

9. Piston is made of .................
a) Zinc Alloy
b) Aluminum Alloy
c)Copper Alloy
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Aluminum Alloy


10. The knocking in the diesel engine occurs due to -
a) Ignition advance
b) Ignition delay
c) Ignition hold
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Ignition delay


11. The Petrol Engine works on
the principle of ..........
a) Otto Cycle
b) Diesel Cycle
c) Pascal Cycle
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Otto Cycle


12. Turbo charger in a Diesel
Engine is normally driven by ........
a)Inlet Air
b) Exhaust Gases
(c) Lub oil pump
 d) None of these
Answer:- b) Exhaust Gases

13. Oil should be checked -
a) Before starting the engine
b) During running of engine
c) Within two minute after
     stopping the engine
d) None of the above
Answer:- a) Before starting the engine

14. A spark plug gap is kept between -
a)  0.2 to 0.8mm
b)  0.3 to 0.7mm
c)  0.4 to 0.9 mm
d)  0.6 to 1.0 mm
Answer:- a)  0.2 to 0.8mm

15. Tappet clearance adjustment is
       carried out when ............
a) Both the inlet and exhaust valves are
     in shut position
b) Only inlet valve is in shut position
c) Only exhaust valve is in shut position
d) All of above
Answer:- a) Both the inlet and exhaust
valves are in shut position

16. The lower portion of piston is called as -
a) Sleeve
b) Skirt
c) Piston Land
d) Grooves
Answer:- b) Skirt


17. The petrol air mixture at starting of
an engine needs to be ............
a)  Lean
b)  Pure petrol
(c) Same as for normal running
d)  Rich
Answer:- d) Rich


18. Which of the following has
      finished surface?
a)Wet Liner
b) Dry Liner
c) Both (a) &(b)
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Dry Liner


19. Piston diameter is...........than
cylinder diameter.
a) More
b) Less
c) Equal
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Less

20. Flywheel of a Diesel Engine
is made of ........
a) Wood
b) Aluminum
c) Brass
d) Steel
Answer:- d) Steel

21. Which of the following engine
power is more power?
a) Internal Combustion Engine
b) External Combustion Engine
c) Both (a) &(b)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Internal Combustion Engine


22. Engine valves are mounted ......
a) On Cylinder Block or Cylinder Head
b) Inside the cylinder
c) On crank case
d) None of these
Answer:- a) On Cylinder Block or Cylinder Head

23. Which of the following is used for
housing of crank shaft and cam shaft?
a)  Crank case
b)  Cylinder lining
c)  Piston ring
d)  Piston pin
Answer:- a)Crank case

24. Radiator of the which of engine is
small in size -
a) Petrol Engine
b) Diesel Engine
c) Both (a) &(b)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Petrol Engine

25. Which of the engine has lesser
compression ratio?
a) Petrol Engine
b) Diesel Engine
c) Both (a) &(b)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Petrol Engine

26. Which of the following is the part
of fuel feed system?
a) Fuel tank
b) Fuel filter
c) Fuel gauge
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these

27. Engine valves are opened by ...........
a) Cam shaft
b) Crank shaft
c) Rocker Arm
d) Valve Guide
Answer:- a) Cam shaft

28. In a petrol engine, if diesel is used,
 then the engine will ...........
a) Not run
b) Run more efficiently
c) Run at high speed
d) Explode
Answer:- a) Not run

29. What will happen due to abnormal
wear of oil ring of a piston?
a) High oil viscosity
b) More oil consumption
c) High oil pressure
d) Low pump pressure
Answer:- b) More oil consumption

30. The purpose of providing drain
plug in Air compressor is ............
a) To drain out oil
b) To drain out condensed water
c) To drain out air
d) To drain out coolant
Answer:- b) To drain out condensed water

31. Excessive valve guide wear will
result in ........
a) More oil consumption
b) Engine efficiency is
c) Perfect sealing oil valve
d) Increased valve life
Answer:- a) More oil consumption

32. The late opening of engine valve
 is termed as .........
a) Lead
b) Leg
c) Throw
d) Bore
Answer:- b) Leg

33. Internal diameter of cylinder is
called as .......
a) Bore
b).D.S.S.
c) B.D.S.
d) Lead
Answer:- a) Bore


34. The pressure inside the cylinder
is .............. the atmospheric pressure
during the exhaust stroke,
a) Equal to
b) Below
c) Above
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Above


35. The factors affecting knocking an
engine are .......
a) Compression ratio
b) Cold mixture
c) Additives
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


36. Which is the type of muffler?
a) Baffle type
b) Resonance type
c) Wave cancellation type
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


37. Radiators are generally made of ........
a) Brass and copper
b) Iron
c) Silver
d) Aluminum
Answer:- a) Brass and copper


38. If the temperature of intake air in
internal combustion engine increases,
then its efficiency will -
a) Remain same
b) Decrease
c) Increase
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Decrease


39. The expansion of fuel in a four
stroke cycle diesel engine ............
a) Starts at 15° before top dead center
and ends at 30° after top dead center
b) Starts at top dead center and ends
at 30° after top dead center
c) Starts at 15° after top dead center
and ends at 30° before bottom dead center
d) May start and end anywhere
Answer:- d) May start and end anywhere


40. The pressure at the end of compression
 in the case of diesel engine is of the
order of  .......
a)  6kg/cm²
b)  12kg/cm²
c)  20 kg/cm²
d)   35 kg/cm²
Answer:- a)  6kg/cm²

41. The operation of forcing additional
air under pressure in the engine
cylinder is known
as -
a) Scavenging
 b) Turbulence
c) Supercharging
d) Pre-ignition
Answer:- c) Supercharging


42. A diesel engine as compared to
petrol engine (both running and
rated load) is -
a) More efficient
 b) Less efficient
c) Equally efficient
d) Other factors will decide it
Answer:- a) More efficient

43. A diesel engine is ........ as compared
to petrol engine, both running at rated
load.
a) Equally efficient
b) Less efficient
c) More efficient
d) None of these
Answer:- c) More efficient

44. A higher compression ratio causes ............
a) Pre-ignition
b) Increase in detonation
c) Acceleration in the rate of combustion   
d) Any one of these
Answer:- d) Any one of these

45. The size of inlet valve of an engine in
comparison to exhaust valve is ........
a) More
b) Less
c) Same
d) More/less depending on capacity of engine
Answer:- a) More


46. Which is more viscous lube oil?
a) SEA 30
b) SAE 50
c) SAE 70
d) SAE 80
Answer:- d) SAE 80


47. The magneto in an automobile is
basically .............
a) Transformer
b) D.C. generator
c) Capacitor
d) Magnetic circuit
Answer:- b) D.C. generator


48. The output of a diesel engine
can be increased without increasing
the engine revolution or size in
following way ................
a) Feeding more fuel
b) Heating incoming air
c) Scavenging
d) Supercharging
Answer:- d) Supercharging


49. Diesel as compared to petrol is ......
a) Highly ignitable
b) More difficult to ignite
c) Less difficult to ignite
d) None of these
Answer:- b) More difficult to ignite


50. The colour of exhaust from
diesel engine is generally ............
a) White
b) Bluish
c) Black
d) Violet
Answer:- c) Black

JULY2016
MECHANIC DIESEL
THEORY
SEMESTER - II

1. Morse test can be conducted
for  ........
(a) Petrol engines
b) Diesel engines
c) Multi cylinder engines
d) All of these
Answer:- c) Multi cylinder engines


2. Which of the following is a unit
 of pressure?
a) Kg/cm²
b) gama
c) Pie
d) Newton
Answer:- a) Kg/cm²

3. During the suction stroke of a
diesel engine ........
a) Petrol injected
b) Diesel injected
c) Diesel and air supplied
d) Only air supplied
Answer:- d) Only air supplied


4. In an automobile engine,
the temperature of piston will
be more at the ................
a) Piston pin
b) Skirt of piston
c) Crown of piston
d) Piston rings
Answer:- c) Crown of piston


5. In the compression stroke
the piston moves from ........
a)T.D.C to B.D.C
b) B.D.C. to T.D.C
c) Below B.D.C.
d) Above T.D.C.
Answer:- b) B.D.C. to T.D.C


6. Piston slap in a cold engine is
due to ..........
a) Excessive ring gap
b) Excessive piston to bore clearance
c) Less piston working clearance
d) Excessive compression pressure
Answer:- b) Excessive piston to bore clearance

7. Heater plugs are used to warm up.......
a) Fuel pump
b) Feed pump
c) Injector
d) Combustion chamber
Answer:- d) Combustion chamber


8. In one revolution of a 2-stroke
engine of crank shaft, the inlet
value opens ............
a) 1 Time
b) 2Times
c) 3 Times
d) 4 Times
Answer:- a) 1 Time

9. Piston is made of .................
a) Zinc Alloy
b) Aluminum Alloy
c)Copper Alloy
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Aluminum Alloy


10. The knocking in the diesel engine occurs due to -
a) Ignition advance
b) Ignition delay
c) Ignition hold
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Ignition delay


11. The Petrol Engine works on
the principle of ..........
a) Otto Cycle
b) Diesel Cycle
c) Pascal Cycle
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Otto Cycle


12. Turbo charger in a Diesel
Engine is normally driven by ........
a)Inlet Air
b) Exhaust Gases
(c) Lub oil pump
 d) None of these
Answer:- b) Exhaust Gases

13. Oil should be checked -
a) Before starting the engine
b) During running of engine
c) Within two minute after
     stopping the engine
d) None of the above
Answer:- a) Before starting the engine

14. A spark plug gap is kept between -
a)  0.2 to 0.8mm
b)  0.3 to 0.7mm
c)  0.4 to 0.9 mm
d)  0.6 to 1.0 mm
Answer:- a)  0.2 to 0.8mm

15. Tappet clearance adjustment is
       carried out when ............
a) Both the inlet and exhaust valves are
     in shut position
b) Only inlet valve is in shut position
c) Only exhaust valve is in shut position
d) All of above
Answer:- a) Both the inlet and exhaust
valves are in shut position

16. The lower portion of piston is called as -
a) Sleeve
b) Skirt
c) Piston Land
d) Grooves
Answer:- b) Skirt


17. The petrol air mixture at starting of
an engine needs to be ............
a)  Lean
b)  Pure petrol
(c) Same as for normal running
d)  Rich
Answer:- d) Rich


18. Which of the following has
      finished surface?
a)Wet Liner
b) Dry Liner
c) Both (a) &(b)
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Dry Liner


19. Piston diameter is...........than
cylinder diameter.
a) More
b) Less
c) Equal
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Less

20. Flywheel of a Diesel Engine
is made of ........
a) Wood
b) Aluminum
c) Brass
d) Steel
Answer:- d) Steel

21. Which of the following engine
power is more power?
a) Internal Combustion Engine
b) External Combustion Engine
c) Both (a) &(b)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Internal Combustion Engine


22. Engine valves are mounted ......
a) On Cylinder Block or Cylinder Head
b) Inside the cylinder
c) On crank case
d) None of these
Answer:- a) On Cylinder Block or Cylinder Head

23. Which of the following is used for
housing of crank shaft and cam shaft?
a)  Crank case
b)  Cylinder lining
c)  Piston ring
d)  Piston pin
Answer:- a)Crank case

24. Radiator of the which of engine is
small in size -
a) Petrol Engine
b) Diesel Engine
c) Both (a) &(b)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Petrol Engine

25. Which of the engine has lesser
compression ratio?
a) Petrol Engine
b) Diesel Engine
c) Both (a) &(b)
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Petrol Engine

26. Which of the following is the part
of fuel feed system?
a) Fuel tank
b) Fuel filter
c) Fuel gauge
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these

27. Engine valves are opened by ...........
a) Cam shaft
b) Crank shaft
c) Rocker Arm
d) Valve Guide
Answer:- a) Cam shaft

28. In a petrol engine, if diesel is used,
 then the engine will ...........
a) Not run
b) Run more efficiently
c) Run at high speed
d) Explode
Answer:- a) Not run

29. What will happen due to abnormal
wear of oil ring of a piston?
a) High oil viscosity
b) More oil consumption
c) High oil pressure
d) Low pump pressure
Answer:- b) More oil consumption

30. The purpose of providing drain
plug in Air compressor is ............
a) To drain out oil
b) To drain out condensed water
c) To drain out air
d) To drain out coolant
Answer:- b) To drain out condensed water

31. Excessive valve guide wear will
result in ........
a) More oil consumption
b) Engine efficiency is
c) Perfect sealing oil valve
d) Increased valve life
Answer:- a) More oil consumption

32. The late opening of engine valve
 is termed as .........
a) Lead
b) Leg
c) Throw
d) Bore
Answer:- b) Leg

33. Internal diameter of cylinder is
called as .......
a) Bore
b).D.S.S.
c) B.D.S.
d) Lead
Answer:- a) Bore


34. The pressure inside the cylinder
is .............. the atmospheric pressure
during the exhaust stroke,
a) Equal to
b) Below
c) Above
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Above


35. The factors affecting knocking an
engine are .......
a) Compression ratio
b) Cold mixture
c) Additives
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


36. Which is the type of muffler?
a) Baffle type
b) Resonance type
c) Wave cancellation type
d) All of these
Answer:- d) All of these


37. Radiators are generally made of ........
a) Brass and copper
b) Iron
c) Silver
d) Aluminum
Answer:- a) Brass and copper


38. If the temperature of intake air in
internal combustion engine increases,
then its efficiency will -
a) Remain same
b) Decrease
c) Increase
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Decrease


39. The expansion of fuel in a four
stroke cycle diesel engine ............
a) Starts at 15° before top dead center
and ends at 30° after top dead center
b) Starts at top dead center and ends
at 30° after top dead center
c) Starts at 15° after top dead center
and ends at 30° before bottom dead center
d) May start and end anywhere
Answer:- d) May start and end anywhere


40. The pressure at the end of compression
 in the case of diesel engine is of the
order of  .......
a)  6kg/cm²
b)  12kg/cm²
c)  20 kg/cm²
d)   35 kg/cm²
Answer:- a)  6kg/cm²

41. The operation of forcing additional
air under pressure in the engine
cylinder is known
as -
a) Scavenging
 b) Turbulence
c) Supercharging
d) Pre-ignition
Answer:- c) Supercharging


42. A diesel engine as compared to
petrol engine (both running and
rated load) is -
a) More efficient
 b) Less efficient
c) Equally efficient
d) Other factors will decide it
Answer:- a) More efficient

43. A diesel engine is ........ as compared
to petrol engine, both running at rated
load.
a) Equally efficient
b) Less efficient
c) More efficient
d) None of these
Answer:- c) More efficient

44. A higher compression ratio causes ............
a) Pre-ignition
b) Increase in detonation
c) Acceleration in the rate of combustion   
d) Any one of these
Answer:- d) Any one of these

45. The size of inlet valve of an engine in
comparison to exhaust valve is ........
a) More
b) Less
c) Same
d) More/less depending on capacity of engine
Answer:- a) More


46. Which is more viscous lube oil?
a) SEA 30
b) SAE 50
c) SAE 70
d) SAE 80
Answer:- d) SAE 80


47. The magneto in an automobile is
basically .............
a) Transformer
b) D.C. generator
c) Capacitor
d) Magnetic circuit
Answer:- b) D.C. generator


48. The output of a diesel engine
can be increased without increasing
the engine revolution or size in
following way ................
a) Feeding more fuel
b) Heating incoming air
c) Scavenging
d) Supercharging
Answer:- d) Supercharging


49. Diesel as compared to petrol is ......
a) Highly ignitable
b) More difficult to ignite
c) Less difficult to ignite
d) None of these
Answer:- b) More difficult to ignite


50. The colour of exhaust from
diesel engine is generally ............
a) White
b) Bluish
c) Black
d) Violet
Answer:- c) Black

JULY2016
REFRIGERATION AND
AIR CONDITIONING
THEORY
SEMESTER-II
PART-2
1. The compressor motor in
a hermetically sealed compressor
 is cooled by ............
a) Water
b) Air
c) Refrigerant
d) Nitrogen
Answer:- b) Air

2. The screw compressors can be
used for wet compression with
refrigerant -
a)  R134a
b)  R12
c)  NH3
d)  Water
Answer:- c)  NH3

3. For large capacity and high
volume flow rate the suitable
compressor is ............
a)  Centrifugal
b)  Reciprocating     
c)  Screw
d)   Scroll
Answer:- a)  Centrifugal
4. The main components of a
centrifugal compressor are .....
a)  Eye
b)  Impeller
c)  Diffuser
d)  Both (a) & (b)
Answer:- d)  Both (a) & (b)

5. The slip in case of three
phase induction motor is in
the range of.........
a) 0.5% to 5%
b) 2% to 10%
c) 10% to 15%
d) 15% to 20%
Answer:- a) 0.5% to 5%


6. High starling torque induction
motors for compressors are
used with .............
a)  Capillary tube     
b)  Condenser
c)  Float valves
d)  None of these
Answer:- d) None of these


7. The relationship between
rotor speed 'N' frequency 'F'and no.
of poles 'P' is given by
the relation ...........
a)  N=120t7P
b)  PN=120/f
c)  f=120N/P
d)  N=l20P/f
Answer:- a)  N=120t7P


8. The function of condenser
 in a refrigeration system is ..........
a) To cool surrounding air
b) To cool products or space
c) To condense the superheated
vapor refrigerant discharged by
the compressor
d) To condense the refrigerant
vapour entering the compressor
Answer:- c) To condense the superheated
vapor refrigerant discharged by
the compressor
9. Domestic refrigeration work on .....
a) Vapour compression cycle
b) Vapour absorption
c) Otto cycle
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Vapour compression cycle

10. Liquid receiver is installed in -
a) Suction line
b) Discharge line
c) Liquid line
d) Expansion line
Answer:- c) Liquid line

11. The efficiency of a water cooled
condenser is ......
a) Lower than the air cooled condenser
b) Same as that of air cooled condenser
c) Higher than the air cooled condenser   
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Higher than the air cooled condenser

12. The function of drier in a refrigeration
system is to ............
a) Separate lubricant from the refrigerant
b) Remove the moisture from the refrigerant
c) To maintain the level of the liquid
     refrigerant in the system
d) Help in dry compression of the refrigerant
Answer:- b) Remove the moisture from the refrigerant

13.     The dry compression can be
avoided by installing -
a) Liquid suction heat exchanger
b) Accumulator
c) Thermostatic expansion valve
d) All of these methods can be used
Answer:- d) All of these methods can be used


14.     The length and diameter of
           capillary tube are -
a) Small
b) Large
c) Small and large respectively
d) Long and small
Answer:- d) Long and small


15. The expansion valve used in
central air-conditioning plant
should be
a) Capillary tube
b) Thermostatic expansion valv
c) Automatic expansion valve
d) Low side float valve
Answer:- b) Thermostatic expansion valv

16. The drawback of automatic
expansion valve is ............
a) Increase in load increases the
mass flow rate
b) Increase in load decreases
mass flow rate
c) Not suitable for varying load
d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:- d) Both (a) and (c)


17. During expansion in capillary tube
enthalpy ........
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Not change
d)  None of these
Answer:- c) Not change

18. Temporary fastening done by
help of..............
a) Welding
b) Brazing
c) Soldering
d) Rivet
Answer:- d) Rivet

19. The power consumption of a
1TR window AC is in the
range of..........
a)   1 to 1.5 kW
b)  1.5 to 2 kW
c)  2kW to2.5kW
d)  3to3.5kW
Answer:- c)2kW to2.5kW

20. Superheating in evaporator
causes ...........
a) Capacity to increase
b) Compressor power consumption to
c) COP to increase only
d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:- b) Compressor power consumption to

21. The HFC refrigerants have ........
a)  Low ODP value
b)  High OPD
c)  Low GWP
d)  Zero ODP
Answer:- d)  Zero ODP

22. The HCFC refrigerant is -
a)  R12
b)  R22
c)  R134a
d)  R600
Answer:- b)  R22

23. The HFC refrigerant is -
a) RH
b) R22
c) R134a
d)  R290
Answer:- c) R!34a


24. The main drawback of HC
refrigerants is their
a) High ODP
b) High GWP
c) Flammability
d) High GWP and Flammability
Answer:- c) Flammability


25. The alternate refrigerant for
R l 1 is ...........
a)  R22
b)  R123
c)  R134a
d)  R125
Answer:- b)  R123

26. Window AC for cooling can be
easily converted to heating mode
by installing a .........
a) Two way reversing valve
b) Four way reversing valve
c) Throttle valve
d) Three way valve
Answer:- b) Four way reversing valve

27. Brine is a solution of .........
a) Ice and water
b) water and sodium chloride
c) Water and acid
d) None of these
Answer:- b) water and sodium chloride


28. In the condenser, the
refrigerant first loses its ........
a) Latent heat
b) Sensible heat
c) Sometimes sensible and
sometimes latent heat
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Sensible heat


29. The pipe line pressure drops
 in split AC are more compared to
window AC because of-
a) Long length of suction and
discharge lines
b) Two units i.e. indoor and
    outdoor units
c) Long length of discharge and
     liquid line
d) Long lengths of suction and
     liquid lines
Answer:- d) Long lengths of suction and
     liquid lines

30. The lubricating oil used with
     R134a is ..........
a) Mineral Oil
b) Polyol Ester
c) Polyglycol
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Polyol Ester


31. PUF stands ior ...........
a) Poly user foam
b) Poly urea foam
c) Polyurethane foam
d) Polyurea urethane foam
Answer:- c) Polyurethane foam


32. Refrigerant R134a..........
a) Is Non flammable
b) is Flammable     
c) Has Low GWP   
d) Low ODP
Answer:- a) Is Non flammable


33. In a split AC the indoor
unit comprises of .......
a) Evaporator and blower
b) Evaporator coil, blower and
    capillary tube
c) Evaporator coil, blower and motor,
    air filter, control panel, supply and
     return air grills
d) Evaporator coil, air filter, control
     panel, supply and return air grills,
     capillary tube
Answer:- c) Evaporator coil, blower and motor,
    air filter, control panel, supply and
     return air grills


34. Hissing or gurgling noise is
produced from at the exit of-
a) Evaporator
b) Compressor
c) Capillary tube   
d) Condenser
Answer:- c) Capillary tube

35. The compressor of the car
Air-conditioning system gets
the drive from ............
a) Solar panels
 b) Car battery
c) Generator of car 
d)  l.C. engine shaft
Answer:- d)  l.C. engine shaft


36. The condenser of a car AC is .......
a) Water cooled     
b) Air cooled
c) Evaporative type 
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Air cooled

37. The drier filter of a window
AC is installed in ........
a) Suction line
b) Discharge line   
c) Liquid line
d) Expansion
Answer:- c) Liquid line

38. The heal rejection capacity
of the condenser should be .........
a) Same as that of cooling capacity
b)  Higher than cooling capacity
c) Lower than cooling capacity
d) Same that of compressor cooling
capacity
Answer:- b)  Higher than cooling capacity


39. The upcoming alternative
refrigerant to be used in car air-
conditioning system is...........
a) R134a
b) RI234yf
c) R1234ze
d) R764
Answer:- b) RI234yf


40. The pressure testing of the
following equipment in the
plant is not necessary ............
a) Compressor
b) Evaporator
c) Condenser
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Compressor


41. The azeotropic refrigerant  is ......
at R407C
b) R410A
c) R7I7
d) R502
Answer:- d) R502

42. The refrigerant leaves the
condenser as ............
a) High pressure saturated liquid
b) Low pressure saturated liquid
c) High pressure high temperature 
    saturated liquid
d) Low pressure high temperature
    saturated liquid
Answer:- c) High pressure high temperature 
    saturated liquid

43. The thickness of fins used on
condenser coil of a window AC
 is about ..........
a) 0.5 cm
b) 0.2 nun
c) 0.2 cm
d) 0.5
Answer:- b) 0.2 nun


44. A loss in vacuum after 24 hours
in standing vacuum test indicates
a) The presence of moisture
b) Leak in the system
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Both (a) & (b)

 45.High pressure cut out is used
with......
a) Condenser
b) Evaporator
c) Compressor
d) Expansion valve
Answer:- c) Compressor

46. The lowest temperature with
liquid refrigerant in a vapour
compression refrigeration
system occurs after -
a) Compression   
 b) Condensation   
c) Evaporation     
d) Expansion
Answer:- d) Expansion

47. A thermostatic expansion
valve is used with
a) Window air-conditioner
 b) Split Air-conditioner
C) Central Air-conditioning plant
d) None of these
Answer:- C) Central Air-conditioning plant


48. The capacity of a refrigeration
plant is measured in .........
a) Litres
b) Metric   
c) TR
d) Tonnes
Answer:- c) TR

49. This is a pari of Vapour compression
system ......
a) Absorber
b) Pump
c) Compressor     
d) Turbine
Answer:- c) Compressor
50. Undercharging a system ........
a) Increases COP
b) Reduces COP
C) COP remains constant
d) None ol these
Answer:- b) Reduces COP

JULY2016
REFRIGERATION AND
AIR CONDITIONING
THEORY
SEMESTER-II

1. The compressor motor in
a hermetically sealed compressor
 is cooled by ............
a) Water
b) Air
c) Refrigerant
d) Nitrogen
Answer:- b) Air

2. The screw compressors can be
used for wet compression with
refrigerant -
a)  R134a
b)  R12
c)  NH3
d)  Water
Answer:- c)  NH3

3. For large capacity and high
volume flow rate the suitable
compressor is ............
a)  Centrifugal
b)  Reciprocating     
c)  Screw
d)   Scroll
Answer:- a)  Centrifugal
4. The main components of a
centrifugal compressor are .....
a)  Eye
b)  Impeller
c)  Diffuser
d)  Both (a) & (b)
Answer:- d)  Both (a) & (b)

5. The slip in case of three
phase induction motor is in
the range of.........
a) 0.5% to 5%
b) 2% to 10%
c) 10% to 15%
d) 15% to 20%
Answer:- a) 0.5% to 5%


6. High starling torque induction
motors for compressors are
used with .............
a)  Capillary tube     
b)  Condenser
c)  Float valves
d)  None of these
Answer:- d) None of these


7. The relationship between
rotor speed 'N' frequency 'F'and no.
of poles 'P' is given by
the relation ...........
a)  N=120t7P
b)  PN=120/f
c)  f=120N/P
d)  N=l20P/f
Answer:- a)  N=120t7P


8. The function of condenser
 in a refrigeration system is ..........
a) To cool surrounding air
b) To cool products or space
c) To condense the superheated
vapor refrigerant discharged by
the compressor
d) To condense the refrigerant
vapour entering the compressor
Answer:- c) To condense the superheated
vapor refrigerant discharged by
the compressor
9. Domestic refrigeration work on .....
a) Vapour compression cycle
b) Vapour absorption
c) Otto cycle
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Vapour compression cycle

10. Liquid receiver is installed in -
a) Suction line
b) Discharge line
c) Liquid line
d) Expansion line
Answer:- c) Liquid line

11. The efficiency of a water cooled
condenser is ......
a) Lower than the air cooled condenser
b) Same as that of air cooled condenser
c) Higher than the air cooled condenser   
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Higher than the air cooled condenser

12. The function of drier in a refrigeration
system is to ............
a) Separate lubricant from the refrigerant
b) Remove the moisture from the refrigerant
c) To maintain the level of the liquid
     refrigerant in the system
d) Help in dry compression of the refrigerant
Answer:- b) Remove the moisture from the refrigerant

13.     The dry compression can be
avoided by installing -
a) Liquid suction heat exchanger
b) Accumulator
c) Thermostatic expansion valve
d) All of these methods can be used
Answer:- d) All of these methods can be used


14.     The length and diameter of
           capillary tube are -
a) Small
b) Large
c) Small and large respectively
d) Long and small
Answer:- d) Long and small


15. The expansion valve used in
central air-conditioning plant
should be
a) Capillary tube
b) Thermostatic expansion valv
c) Automatic expansion valve
d) Low side float valve
Answer:- b) Thermostatic expansion valv

16. The drawback of automatic
expansion valve is ............
a) Increase in load increases the
mass flow rate
b) Increase in load decreases
mass flow rate
c) Not suitable for varying load
d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:- d) Both (a) and (c)


17. During expansion in capillary tube
enthalpy ........
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Not change
d)  None of these
Answer:- c) Not change

18. Temporary fastening done by
help of..............
a) Welding
b) Brazing
c) Soldering
d) Rivet
Answer:- d) Rivet

19. The power consumption of a
1TR window AC is in the
range of..........
a)   1 to 1.5 kW
b)  1.5 to 2 kW
c)  2kW to2.5kW
d)  3to3.5kW
Answer:- c)2kW to2.5kW

20. Superheating in evaporator
causes ...........
a) Capacity to increase
b) Compressor power consumption to
c) COP to increase only
d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:- b) Compressor power consumption to

21. The HFC refrigerants have ........
a)  Low ODP value
b)  High OPD
c)  Low GWP
d)  Zero ODP
Answer:- d)  Zero ODP

22. The HCFC refrigerant is -
a)  R12
b)  R22
c)  R134a
d)  R600
Answer:- b)  R22

23. The HFC refrigerant is -
a) RH
b) R22
c) R134a
d)  R290
Answer:- c) R!34a


24. The main drawback of HC
refrigerants is their
a) High ODP
b) High GWP
c) Flammability
d) High GWP and Flammability
Answer:- c) Flammability


25. The alternate refrigerant for
R l 1 is ...........
a)  R22
b)  R123
c)  R134a
d)  R125
Answer:- b)  R123

26. Window AC for cooling can be
easily converted to heating mode
by installing a .........
a) Two way reversing valve
b) Four way reversing valve
c) Throttle valve
d) Three way valve
Answer:- b) Four way reversing valve

27. Brine is a solution of .........
a) Ice and water
b) water and sodium chloride
c) Water and acid
d) None of these
Answer:- b) water and sodium chloride


28. In the condenser, the
refrigerant first loses its ........
a) Latent heat
b) Sensible heat
c) Sometimes sensible and
sometimes latent heat
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Sensible heat


29. The pipe line pressure drops
 in split AC are more compared to
window AC because of-
a) Long length of suction and
discharge lines
b) Two units i.e. indoor and
    outdoor units
c) Long length of discharge and
     liquid line
d) Long lengths of suction and
     liquid lines
Answer:- d) Long lengths of suction and
     liquid lines

30. The lubricating oil used with
     R134a is ..........
a) Mineral Oil
b) Polyol Ester
c) Polyglycol
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Polyol Ester


31. PUF stands ior ...........
a) Poly user foam
b) Poly urea foam
c) Polyurethane foam
d) Polyurea urethane foam
Answer:- c) Polyurethane foam


32. Refrigerant R134a..........
a) Is Non flammable
b) is Flammable     
c) Has Low GWP   
d) Low ODP
Answer:- a) Is Non flammable


33. In a split AC the indoor
unit comprises of .......
a) Evaporator and blower
b) Evaporator coil, blower and
    capillary tube
c) Evaporator coil, blower and motor,
    air filter, control panel, supply and
     return air grills
d) Evaporator coil, air filter, control
     panel, supply and return air grills,
     capillary tube
Answer:- c) Evaporator coil, blower and motor,
    air filter, control panel, supply and
     return air grills


34. Hissing or gurgling noise is
produced from at the exit of-
a) Evaporator
b) Compressor
c) Capillary tube   
d) Condenser
Answer:- c) Capillary tube

35. The compressor of the car
Air-conditioning system gets
the drive from ............
a) Solar panels
 b) Car battery
c) Generator of car 
d)  l.C. engine shaft
Answer:- d)  l.C. engine shaft


36. The condenser of a car AC is .......
a) Water cooled     
b) Air cooled
c) Evaporative type 
d) None of these
Answer:- b) Air cooled

37. The drier filter of a window
AC is installed in ........
a) Suction line
b) Discharge line   
c) Liquid line
d) Expansion
Answer:- c) Liquid line

38. The heal rejection capacity
of the condenser should be .........
a) Same as that of cooling capacity
b)  Higher than cooling capacity
c) Lower than cooling capacity
d) Same that of compressor cooling
capacity
Answer:- b)  Higher than cooling capacity


39. The upcoming alternative
refrigerant to be used in car air-
conditioning system is...........
a) R134a
b) RI234yf
c) R1234ze
d) R764
Answer:- b) RI234yf


40. The pressure testing of the
following equipment in the
plant is not necessary ............
a) Compressor
b) Evaporator
c) Condenser
d) None of these
Answer:- a) Compressor


41. The azeotropic refrigerant  is ......
at R407C
b) R410A
c) R7I7
d) R502
Answer:- d) R502

42. The refrigerant leaves the
condenser as ............
a) High pressure saturated liquid
b) Low pressure saturated liquid
c) High pressure high temperature 
    saturated liquid
d) Low pressure high temperature
    saturated liquid
Answer:- c) High pressure high temperature 
    saturated liquid

43. The thickness of fins used on
condenser coil of a window AC
 is about ..........
a) 0.5 cm
b) 0.2 nun
c) 0.2 cm
d) 0.5
Answer:- b) 0.2 nun


44. A loss in vacuum after 24 hours
in standing vacuum test indicates
a) The presence of moisture
b) Leak in the system
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
Answer:- c) Both (a) & (b)

 45.High pressure cut out is used
with......
a) Condenser
b) Evaporator
c) Compressor
d) Expansion valve
Answer:- c) Compressor

46. The lowest temperature with
liquid refrigerant in a vapour
compression refrigeration
system occurs after -
a) Compression   
 b) Condensation   
c) Evaporation     
d) Expansion
Answer:- d) Expansion

47. A thermostatic expansion
valve is used with
a) Window air-conditioner
 b) Split Air-conditioner
C) Central Air-conditioning plant
d) None of these
Answer:- C) Central Air-conditioning plant


48. The capacity of a refrigeration
plant is measured in .........
a) Litres
b) Metric   
c) TR
d) Tonnes
Answer:- c) TR

49. This is a pari of Vapour compression
system ......
a) Absorber
b) Pump
c) Compressor     
d) Turbine
Answer:- c) Compressor
50. Undercharging a system ........
a) Increases COP
b) Reduces COP
C) COP remains constant
d) None ol these
Answer:- b) Reduces COP